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APUSH UNIT 2 EXAM
This exam is to be completed out of class and covers chapters 6-12 and all lecture notes and homework questions. Please complete test on notebook paper and be prepared to turn in on 12/1 and 12/2.
1. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
When the Acadians left Canada, they went to
[A] Louisiana.
[B] the French West Indies.
[C] Florida.
[D] Nova Scotia.
[E] France.
2. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
During the War of 1812, the New England states
[A] gave no support to either the Americans or the British.
[B] declared their independence from the United States.
[C] supported the United States¡¦ war effort.
[D] lent more money and sent more food to the British army than to the American army.
[E] allowed their militias to fight wherever the federal government requested.
3. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The antifederalist camp included all of the following groups except
[A] backcountry dwellers.
[B] paper money advocates.
[C] debtors.
[D] states¡¦ rights supporters.
[E] supporters of a strong central authority.
4. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
With Thomas Jefferson¡¦s election as president, the Democratic-Republican party
[A] removed many Federalists from government jobs.
[B] soon resented its leaders¡¦ lavish life-style.
[C] grew stronger and more unified.
[D] grew less unified as the Federalist party began to fade and lose power.
[E] sought to extend the Alien and Sedition Acts to punish their enemies.
5. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
At the time it was issued, the Monroe Doctrine was
[A] opposed by the Whig party.
[B] universally acclaimed in Britain as a great act of statesmanship.
[C] welcomed with relief by European powers who feared British power in the Western Hemisphere.
[D] incapable of being enforced by the United States.
[E] greeted with enthusiasm and gratitude in South America.
6. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
In the peace arrangements that ended the French and Indian War,
[A] England turned Florida over to Spain.
[B] Spain ceded all of Louisiana, including New Orleans, to Britain.
[C] France lost all its valuable sugar islands in the West Indies.
[D] the British got all of Canada except Nova Scotia.
[E] France surrendered all of its territorial claims to North America.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
7. George Washington¡¦s selection to lead the colonial army was
[A] done with no misgivings.
[B] a poor choice.
[C] largely political.
[D] opposed by New Englanders.
[E] based solely on military experience.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
8. John Jay¡¦s 1794 treaty with Britain
[A] created deeper splits between Federalists and Democratic-Republicans.
[B] alienated America from Spain.
[C] increased George Washington¡¦s huge popularity.
[D] provided further evidence of American support for France.
[E] led to the election of Thomas Jefferson.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
9. The ¡§Fighting Quaker¡¨ who cleared most of Georgia and South Carolina was
[A] Benedict Arnold.
[B] Nathanael Greene.
[C] Joseph Brant.
[D] Charles Cornwallis.
[E] Benjamin Smith.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
10. Washington¡¦s Neutrality Proclamation clearly illustrated the truism that
[A] the United States was trying to do what was best for its allies.
[B] he was unprepared for the demands of foreign policy.
[C] self-interest is the basic cement of alliances.
[D] foreign policy should be handled by a group and not by a single individual.
[E] none of these.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
11. One purpose of the Declaration of Independence was to
[A] condemn Parliament for its actions.
[B] warn other nations to stay out of the Revolution.
[C] explain to the rest of the world why the colonies had revolted.
[D] ask for an end to slavery.
[E] appeal for fairer treatment by Parliament.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
12. In the colonial wars before 1754, Americans
[A] rarely involved Indians in the fighting.
[B] received more support from France than Britain.
[C] were not involved in combat.
[D] functioned as a unified fighting force.
[E] demonstrated an astonishing lack of unity.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
13. Match each nation with the correct description of the problem it presented for U.S. foreign relations following the Revolutionary War.
___ A. Britain
___ B. France
___ C. Spain
___ D. Barbary Coast
1. threatened American commerce in the Mediterranean
2. demanded repayment of wartime loans
3. occupied a chain of trading forts in the Old Northwest
4. controlled important trade routes from the interior of North America
[A] A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
[B] A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
[C] A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
[D] A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
[E] A-2, B-2, C-3, D-4
14. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Washington¡¦s Neutrality Proclamation of 1793
[A] had little impact on future American foreign policy.
[B] fulfilled America¡¦s obligations under the Franco-American Treaty.
[C] dealt a severe blow to French military and naval strategists.
[D] was based on calculations of American self-interest.
[E] was opposed by both Alexander Hamilton and Thomas Jefferson.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
15. Shays¡¦s Rebellion was provoked by
[A] fear that the Articles of Confederation had created too strong a national government for the United States.
[B] a quarrel over the boundary between Massachusetts and Vermont.
[C] foreclosures on the mortgages of backcountry farmers.
[D] the government¡¦s failure to pay bonuses to Revolutionary War veterans.
[E] efforts by wealthy merchants to replace the Articles of Confederation with a new constitution.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
16. The debate between the supporters and critics of the Articles of Confederation centered on how to
[A] reconcile states¡¦ rights with strong national government.
[B] transfer territories to equal statehood.
[C] abolish slavery yet preserve national unity.
[D] conduct foreign policy.
[E] balance the power of legislative and executive offices of government.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
17. Arrange the following events in chronological order: (A) Sugar Act, (B) Declaratory Act, (C) Stamp Act, (D) repeal of the Stamp Act.
[A] B, A, C, D
[B] A, B, D, C
[C] C, A, D, B
[D] A, C, D, B
[E] C, B, A, D
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
18. The First Continental Congress
[A] called for a complete boycott of British goods.
[B] adjourned shortly after convening.
[C] made a ringing declaration of America¡¦s independence from Britain.
[D] adopted a moderate proposal for establishing a kind of home rule for the colonies under British direction.
[E] was attended by delegates from each of the thirteen colonies.
19. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Regarding the provisions of the 1783 Treaty of Paris, which formally ended the Revolution,
[A] Spain gained all it wanted.
[B] France was pleased with the results.
[C] America faithfully adhered to each one.
[D] America followed French instructions to the letter.
[E] America broke the assurances regarding treatment of the Loyalists.
20. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The British attack on Baltimore
[A] resulted in another British victory.
[B] resulted in the destruction of many British shops.
[C] produced the ¡§Bladensburg Races.¡¨
[D] made possible the British invasion of Washington, D.C.
[E] inspired the writing of ¡§The Star-Spangled Banner.¡¨
21. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Match each political leader with his positions on public policy in the 1790s.
___ A. Hamilton
___ B. Jefferson
1. privileges for the upper classes
2. pro-British
3. sympathy for the common people
4. potent central government
5. pay off the national debt
6. government support for business
7. pro-French
8. universal education
[A] A-2, 3, 5, 8¡XB-1, 4, 6, 7
[B] A-3, 6, 7, 8¡XB-1, 2, 4, 5
[C] A-1, 5, 6, 7¡XB-2, 3, 4, 8
[D] A-5, 2, 6, 3¡XB-1, 4, 7, 8
[E] A-1, 2, 4, 6¡XB-3, 5, 7, 8
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
22. Many Whigs in Britain hoped for an American victory in the War for Independence because they
[A] were strongly pacifist.
[B] favored French domination of North America.
[C] rejected colonialism.
[D] feared that if George III triumphed, his rule at home might become tyrannical.
[E] opposed the mercantilist system.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
23. Under the Articles of Confederation, the relationship between the thirteen states
[A] convinced many that a stronger central government was needed.
[B] improved to the point of total unity.
[C] was good politically but poor economically.
[D] was good economically but poor politically.
[E] led to a single currency.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
24. Once begun, the War of 1812 was supported strongly by
[A] the West and South.
[B] very few people.
[C] Native Americans.
[D] New England and the seaboard states.
[E] practically all Americans.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
25. Thomas Jefferson¡¦s first major foreign-policy decision was to
[A] purchase Louisiana from France.
[B] drive the British out of the northwest forts.
[C] purchase Florida from Spain.
[D] send a naval squadron to the Mediterranean.
[E] form an alliance with Spain.
26. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
John Marshall uttered his famous legal dictum that ¡§the power to tax involves the power to destroy¡¨ in
[A] Gibbons v. Ogden.
[B] Marbury v. Madison.
[C] Dartmouth College v. Woodward.
[D] McCulloch v. Maryland.
[E] Fletcher v. Peck.
27. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The major issue that delayed ratification of the Articles of Confederation concerned
[A] western lands.
[B] tariff policy.
[C] taxation.
[D] monetary standards.
[E] monetary policy.
28. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
All of the following were part of Alexander Hamilton¡¦s economic program except
[A] paying only domestic debts but not foreign debts.
[B] tariffs.
[C] a national bank.
[D] assumption of state debts by the federal government.
[E] funding the entire national debt at ¡§par.¡¨
29. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
One result of the victories of the American navy was
[A] an increase in British naval operations in Canadian waters.
[B] the final elimination of British raiding parties landing on America¡¦s east coast.
[C] more warships being built.
[D] a British naval blockade of the United States.
[E] the improvement of the American fishing industry.
30. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Thomas Jefferson was elected president by the House of Representatives when
[A] Aaron Burr withdrew from the race.
[B] additional Jeffersonians became members of the House.
[C] Jefferson agreed to appoint John Marshall to the Supreme Court.
[D] a few Federalists refrained from voting.
[E] the electoral college gave up its responsibility.
31. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The federalists believe that the sovereignty of the people resided in which branch of the central government?
[A] executive
[B] legislative
[C] judicial
[D] none of these
[E] all of these
32. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The nullification crisis started by South Carolina over the Tariff of 1828 ended when
[A] Congress passed the compromise Tariff of 1833.
[B] the federal army crushed all resistance.
[C] Andrew Jackson used the court system to force compliance.
[D] South Carolina took over the collection of tariffs.
[E] Congress used the provisions of the Force Bill.
33. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As a result of American opposition to the Townshend Acts,
[A] British officials sent regiments of troops to Boston to restore law and order.
[B] Prime Minister Townshend was forced to resign.
[C] Parliament repealed all of the taxes levied under this legislation.
[D] the port of Boston was closed.
[E] Americans killed several British soldiers in the Boston Massacre.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
34. In late 1776 and early 1777, George Washington helped restore confidence in America¡¦s military by
[A] gaining a pay raise for American troops.
[B] bringing in Alexander Hamilton as his aide.
[C] securing the support of France for the American war effort with a victory in New York City.
[D] providing adequate food and clothing for the soldiers.
[E] defeating the Hessians at Trenton and the British at Princeton.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
35. One of the major criticisms of the Constitution as drafted in Philadelphia was that it
[A] was too long and detailed.
[B] was far too short and required more detail.
[C] failed to guarantee property rights.
[D] failed to provide a mechanism for amendment.
[E] did not provide guarantees for individual rights.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
36. The American colonial exponents of republicanism argued that a just society depends on
[A] the willingness of all citizens to subordinate their private interests to the common good.
[B] support for hierarchical institutions.
[C] a weak army.
[D] a strong aristocratic tradition.
[E] a powerful central government.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
37. After the Revolutionary War, both Britain and Spain
[A] prevented America from exercising effective control over about half of its total territory.
[B] tried to gain control of Florida.
[C] abandoned their fortifications in the Old Northwest.
[D] helped America to fight the pirates in North America.
[E] did their best to win the friendship of America.
VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
38. Post-War of 1812 nationalism could be seen in all of the following except
[A] development of a national literature.
[B] the building of a more handsome national capital.
[C] an expanded army.
[D] the way in which American painters depicted the beauty of American landscapes.
[E] a revival of American religion.
VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
39. John Marshall¡¦s rulings upheld a defense of property rights against public pressure in
[A] Marbury v. Madison.
[B] Fletcher v. Peck.
[C] Gibbons v. Ogden.
[D] Cohens v. Virginia.
[E] McCulloch v. Maryland.
40. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
One of the most farsighted provisions of the Northwest Ordinance of 1787
[A] set aside a section of each township for education.
[B] prohibited slavery in the Old Northwest.
[C] kept power in the national government.
[D] abolished slavery in all of the United States.
[E] none of these.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
41. John Quincy Adams¡¦s weaknesses as president included all of the following except
[A] a deep nationalistic view.
[B] his sarcastic personality.
[C] only one-third of the voters voted for him.
[D] he was tactless.
[E] his firing good office holders to appoint his own people.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
42. The nullification crisis of 1833 resulted in a clear-cut victory for
[A] South Carolina.
[B] the industrialists.
[C] neither Andrew Jackson nor the nullifiers.
[D] states¡¦ rights.
[E] Andrew Jackson and the Union.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
43. While in existence, the second Bank of the United States
[A] limited economic growth by extending public credit.
[B] forced an ever-increasing number of bank failures.
[C] did little to help the economy.
[D] irresponsibly inflated the national currency by issuing federal bank notes.
[E] was the depository of the funds of the national government.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
44. The Declaration of Independence did all of the following except
[A] invoke the natural rights of humankind to justify revolt.
[B] blame the colonies¡¦ problems on the British Parliament.
[C] condemn the abolition of valued laws.
[D] catalog the tyrannical actions of King George III.
[E] argue that royal tyranny justified revolt.
45. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As noted in ¡§Varying Viewpoints,¡¨ historians since the 1960s have interpreted the Revolutionary struggle as
[A] the exportation of European rivalries to North America.
[B] a war of large battles, e.g., Saratoga, Brandywine, and Yorktown.
[C] one in which economic concerns played a crucial role.
[D] a battle between British regulars and the Continental Army.
[E] having little to do with economics.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
46. American diplomats to the peace negotiations in Paris in 1782-1783 were instructed by the Second Continental Congress to
[A] demand British cession of the trans-Allegheny West to the colonies.
[B] accept any British offer that would essentially return British-American relations to their pre-1763 status.
[C] consult with the colonies¡¦ French allies and make no separate peace arrangements with the British.
[D] get the colonies out of their obligations under the Franco-American alliances.
[E] follow the lead of Spain, not France.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
47. Examples of colonial experience with self-governance, which prepared Americans for a republic, included all of the following except
[A] the relative equality of landowning farmers.
[B] New England town meetings.
[C] the absence of a hereditary aristocracy.
[D] committees of correspondence.
[E] militia service.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
48. When the Second Continental Congress met in 1775,
[A] the conservative element was weakened.
[B] its members felt a strong desire for independence.
[C] it resolved to keep fighting in the hope that the British would redress the colonists¡¦ grievances.
[D] it continued to stall on the creation of a navy.
[E] it cut off communications with the British government.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
49. According to the Federalists, the duty of judging the unconstitutionality of legislation passed by Congress lay with
[A] the Supreme Court.
[B] the president.
[C] the people.
[D] state legislatures.
[E] state supreme courts.
50. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As a result of General Braddock¡¦s defeat a few miles from Fort Duquesne,
[A] the British controlled the frontier.
[B] General Braddock was forced to leave the military.
[C] the British called off their planned invasion of Canada.
[D] George Washington was left without a military command.
[E] the frontier from Pennsylvania to North Carolina was open to Indian attack.
51. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The resolutions from the Hartford Convention
[A] resulted in the resurgence of states¡¦ rights.
[B] supported use of state militias against the British.
[C] called for the West to join the War of 1812.
[D] helped to cause the death of the Federalist party.
[E] called for southern secession from the union.
52. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Thomas Jefferson¡¦s embargo failed for all of the following reasons except that
[A] he underestimated the determination of the British.
[B] Britain produced a bumper grain crop.
[C] he miscalculated the difficulty of enforcing it.
[D] Latin America opened its ports for commerce.
[E] he underestimated Britain¡¦s dependence on American trade.
53. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Democratic-Republicans opposed Henry Clay¡¦s American System because
[A] they favored a road system that included Canada.
[B] it would provide stiff competition to the Erie Canal.
[C] it favored only the South.
[D] they believed that it was unconstitutional.
[E] the Bonus Bill of 1817 made it unnecessary.
54. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
For its continued success, Hamilton¡¦s financial program relied heavily on
[A] trade with Britain.
[B] high taxes.
[C] retiring the national debt.
[D] aid from France.
[E] removal of the Spanish from the Mississippi Valley.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
55. Which of the following is a compromise in the Constitution?
[A] direct election of the president
[B] continuation of the foreign slave trade
[C] prohibiting states from abolishing slave trade
[D] counting all slaves in apportioning membership in the House
[E] control of interstate commerce by the national government
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
56. The first law ever passed by Parliament for raising tax revenues in the colonies for the crown was the
[A] Stamp Act.
[B] Quartering Act.
[C] Sugar Act.
[D] Townshend Acts.
[E] Declaratory Act.
57. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The chief justice who carried out, more than any other federal official, the ideas of Alexander Hamilton concerning a powerful federal government was
[A] William Marbury.
[B] John Marshall.
[C] James Madison.
[D] John Jay.
[E] Samuel Chase.
58. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
One of the major causes of the panic of 1819 was
[A] bankruptcies.
[B] a drought that resulted in poor agricultural production.
[C] the failure to recharter the Bank of the United States.
[D] deflation.
[E] overspeculation in frontier lands.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
59. Jeffersonians believed in all of the following except
[A] every adult white male¡¦s right to vote.
[B] freedom of speech.
[C] opposition to a national debt.
[D] agriculture as the ideal occupation.
[E] central authority should be kept to a minimum.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
60. In order to purchase New Orleans from France, Thomas Jefferson
[A] threatened to form an alliance with France¡¦s enemy, Spain.
[B] decided to make an alliance with his old enemy, Britain.
[C] was willing to use funds from private individuals if Congress would not authorize enough money for the purchase.
[D] proposed to break away from all alliances to prove our neutrality.
[E] was unwilling to go to war.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
61. One change in colonial policy by the British government that helped precipitate the American Revolution involved
[A] beginning a war with Spain.
[B] removing the majority of the British navy from American waters.
[C] removing British troops from American soil.
[D] compelling the American colonists to shoulder some of the financial costs of the empire.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
62. The early wars between France and Britain in North America were notable for the
[A] large number of troops committed by both sides.
[B] use of primitive guerrilla warfare.
[C] carry over of European tactics to America.
[D] lack of Indian participation.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
63. The disunity that existed in the colonies before the French and Indian War can be attributed to
[A] conflicting religions.
[B] geographical barriers like rivers.
[C] the enormous distances between the colonies.
[D] varied nationalities.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
64. The ¡§large-state plan¡¨ put forward in the Constitutional Convention
[A] ultimately provided the framework of the Constitution.
[B] based representation in the House and Senate on population.
[C] favored states such as New Jersey.
[D] was proposed by Patrick Henry.
[E] favored southern states over northern states.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
65. Match each individual with the correct description.
___ A. Samuel Adams
___ B. John Adams
___ C. Crispus Attucks
1. a casualty of the Boston Massacre
2. a foreign volunteer who drilled American troops during the War of Independence
3. a pamphleteer who first organized committees to exchange ideas and information on resisting British policy
4. a Massachusetts politician who opposed the moderates¡¦ solution to the imperial crisis at the First Continental Congress
CHAPTER 14
The National Economy, 1790¡V1860
1. Westward Movement (pp. 287¡V289) At the end of this section, the authors refer to the ¡§heedless exploitation of the West¡¦s natural bounty¡¨ while going on to say that Americans ¡§revered nature and admired its beauty.¡¨ *** Can these two seemingly contradictory statements be reconciled?
2. Immigration and Urbanization (pp. 290¡V297)
a. The population chart on p. 290 shows that, due to a high birth rate and immigration, the country in 1860 was roughly _____ times bigger than it was in 1790. If the population today is about 275 million, it is approximately _____ times bigger than it was in 1860. Also in this first section, the authors describe the squalid conditions in the new booming urban centers. *** Can you think of any similar city in the world today where growth is much too fast for the basic services (¡§infrastructure¡¨) to catch up?
b. Briefly list a few distinctive characteristics of the Irish and the German immigrant groups.
IRISH GERMAN
c. The Protestant majority was concerned about the growing influence of __________________ (a religious denomination), which in the 1840s developed its own separate educational system. The American or ¡§_________-_____________¡¨ Party began about 1849 centered around the concept of anti foreignism. (Note how America¡¦s love/hate attitude toward immigrants constitutes a recurring theme.)
3. Industry and the Factory System (pp. 297¡V304)
a. List two reasons cited by the authors that the Industrial Revolution didn¡¦t hit America until the 1830s and 1840s, much later than it did in Britain.
(1)
(2)
b. What do the authors mean on p. 303 when they say that Eli Whitney gave a boost to slavery ¡§and perhaps made inevitable the Civil War¡¨ but at the same time ¡§helped factories to flourish in the North,¡¨ thus contributing to the ultimate Northern victory?
(1) ¡§¡KCivil War inevitable¡¨
(2) ¡§¡Kultimate Northern victory¡¨
c. What is distinctive about the new ¡§limited liability corporations (p. 304)¡¨? *** Can you guess why this form of business organization was so important to industrialization?
4. Workers and Women (pp. 304¡V309)
a. *** What do you think would be the main differences between working in a craft shop (illustration p. 305) and the more efficient factories illustrated on pp. 307 and 309?
(1) Craft shop:
(2) Factory:
b. Regimented factory jobs, such as those at the first big water-powered textile mill at _________, Mass., were seen by many single girls as a way to escape the farm. Besides factory work, the ¡§caring professions¡¨ open to women included nursing, domestic service, and ______________. Upon marriage, most women left the workforce. How do the authors define the ¡§cult of domesticity (p. 307)¡¨? *** What is your reaction to this view of women¡¦s role in family life?
(1) Definition:
(2) Reaction:
5. Transportation (pp. 309¡V317) (Note: In 1800, the biggest obstacle to national development was that people, goods, and even letters could not move faster than animals could walk, rivers could flow, or the wind could blow. Revolutionary developments, primarily the steamboat and railroad, would change that fast.) The first major wagon road west, the National or _____________ Road, was started in 1811. The revolutionary steamboat, invented by Robert __________ in 1807, allowed people and goods to move upstream as well as down. The first big western canal, the _________ Canal, pushed through in 18____ by Governor DeWitt ___________, benefited its Atlantic terminus at _____ ________ City at the expense of cities like Boston. The first American railroad appeared in 18___ and soon superseded the canal system in terms of importance. Look at the railroad map on p. 313. By 1860, the Midwest was sending its agricultural products and raw materials mostly to the __________ (North or South), enabling that region to specialize in manufacturing and shipping. The South had to continue specializing in its cash crops such as ___________ (its biggest cash crop), which it sent out via its navigable waterways. This new regional specialization will provide a big advantage to the ___________ (North or South) in the eventual Civil War. (Note: Without these new transportation links, the South might have expected closer ties with the Midwest because Midwestern waterways all drain out through New Orleans.)
6. Market Revolution (pp. 317¡V318) In this section, the authors summarize the drastic change from the home as a self-sufficient economic enterprise to the home as a refuge from more specialized, market-oriented work outside. They also point to the growing gulf between rich and poor that caused class warfare in many European countries. What two reasons do they give for the relative absence of class conflict in America, despite these wide disparities between rich and poor?
(1)
1. Part Three Introduction (pp. 348¡V349) This introduction gives you a preview of the authors¡¦ answers to certain key questions about the causes and consequences of the nation¡¦s ¡§awesome trial by fire,¡¨ the Civil War. Look at this section and list three major questions you think the authors will be addressing in the next seven chapters.
(1)
(2)
(3)
2. Southern Economy and Social Structure (pp. 350¡V356)
a. Explain the connection between the invention of the cotton gin by Eli _________ in 17___ and the rapid expansion of short-staple cotton production based on slave labor in the South. If the cotton gin actually made picking seeds from cotton much easier, why did planters perceive a vastly increased need for slave labor?
b. Cotton was king in both the South and in Britain. By 1840, cotton amounted to _____percent of U. S. exports and accounted for more than _____percent of the world¡¦s supply. Britain¡¦s economy was based on cotton textiles, and Britain got _____percent of its fiber supply from the South. (No wonder Southerners thought England would ¡§be tied to them by cotton threads¡¨ in the event of conflict with the North.)
c. List two negatives of this Southern plantation economy mentioned by the authors (pp. 352¡V353).
(1)
(2)
d. Although most slaves were owned by the large-scale planters, most slave-owners held only a few slaves each, and often worked together with them in the fields. The chart on p. 353 shows that, out of about 345,000 slave-owning families, only about ________ families owned fifty or more slaves, representing about ____percent of the total. Fully _____percent of Southern whites owned no slaves at all. List two reasons cited by the authors to explain why many poor whites without slaves remained staunch defenders of the slave system.
(1)
(2)
3. Conditions of Slavery (pp. 356¡V362)
a. If northerners were really against slavery, why do you think they treated individual free blacks with such disdain?
b. With slave importation outlawed since 1808, the slave population grew to a total of __ million by 1860 primarily by natural reproduction. Unlike the North, wealth in the South was not held in monetary form, but rather in the form of land and _________. What did it mean to sell a slave ¡§down the river¡¨? Slaves were being sold from where to where?
c. List two examples of the fact that slaves had absolutely no political or civil rights.
(1)
(2)
d. What do the authors conclude on pp. 360¡V362 about black family and religious life?
e. *** Did anything surprise you about the extent of slave resistance and rebellion (p. 362)?
4. Abolitionism (pp. 362¡V368)
a. The _____________ (a religious sect) were among the first to advocate abolitionism. In the early 1820s, the emphasis was on sending ex-slaves back to Africa, especially to the West African country of ____________. A small minority of fervent abolitionists emerged in the 1830s, encouraged by the freedom given by ___________ (a country) to its West Indian slaves, and by the religious spirit of the Second Great ______________. What is the essential difference between a radical abolitionist, such as William Lloyd ___________, and a more practical or political abolitionist, such as the ex-slave Frederick ___________? *** Had you been against slavery at the time, put an (*) by the approach you would have favored.
(1) Radical:
(2) Political/practical:
b. *** If you had been a moderate Southerner at the time, list two legitimate arguments you might have used against the call of the radical abolitionists for the immediate release of all slaves with no compensation to their owners.
(1)
(2)
c. Look at the cartoon on p. 367. In reaction against increasingly perceived threats to their way of life, Southerners began advancing arguments as to why slavery was a ¡§positive good.¡¨ *** What do you think of the argument that the North was hypocritical because southern slaves had it better than did the ¡§wage slaves¡¨ of the North? Was there any truth in this charge?
d. Were the abolitionists popular or unpopular in the North? Why?
VARYING VIEWPOINTS
Nature of Slavery
Read the Varying Viewpoints essay and address ONE of the following questions:
1. According to historian Eugene Genovese, what motivated southern slave-owners to embrace ¡§a strange form of paternalism¡¨ toward their slaves? *** Do you agree with the authors that this paternalistic attitude had the effect of subverting the ¡§racist underpinnings¡¨ of the slave society?
2. Although economic historians have demonstrated that slavery was still a profitable proposition at the time of the Civil War, it was dying out as an institution in other places around the world. *** Do you have any thoughts as to what would have happened to slavery in America in the absence of a Civil War?
3. Slaves were purposefully kept illiterate and therefore left few written records of their life on the plantations. Technology for audio and video recordings was unavailable and few travelers from the North recorded observations on slave treatment, lifestyle, or culture. *** If you were a historian trying to make conclusions about these subjects, what types of sources would you consult? Do you think an ¡§objective¡¨ picture of southern slavery is possible to construct?
CHAPTER 16 TERM SHEET
The South and Slavery
Pages 350¡V356
Eli Whitney
¡§Cotton Kingdom¡¨
Planter aristocracy
Sir Walter Scott
¡§Poor white trash¡¨/¡§hillbillies¡¨/¡§crackers¡¨
Pages 356¡V362
Free blacks
Sold ¡§down the river¡¨
Harriet Beecher Stowe
Denmark Vesey (1822)
Nat Turner (1831)
Pages 362¡V368
Abolitionism
American Colonization Society (1817)
Liberia (1822)
British emancipation (1833)
Theodore Dwight Weld
Lyman Beecher
William Lloyd Garrison/The Liberator (1831)
American Anti-Slavery Society (1833)
Wendell Phillips
David Walker
Sojourner Truth
Martin Delaney
Frederick Douglass
Rev. Elijah P. Lovejoy (1837)
¡§Free-soilers¡¨
CHAPTER 18
Sectional Struggle, 1848¡V1854
(Note: As you read the next two chapters on the march of events leading to the thoroughly devastating Civil War, think about the question of inevitability. Perhaps draw a timeline of the key events between 1848 and 1861, and try to decide at what point you think an armed conflict between the two regions became inevitable¡Xbeyond which even extraordinary statesmanship could not have healed the wounds.)
1. Slavery in the New Territories (pp. 390¡V396)
a. One proposed solution to the question of whether slavery should be allowed into the new territories acquired from Mexico was called ¡§popular sovereignty.¡¨ What was ¡§popular sovereignty¡¨ and why did it appeal to many moderates?
(1) Popular sovereignty:
(2) Appeal:
b. The authors say that, in 1848, both the Whigs and the Democrats were national parties, providing a ¡§vital bond of national unity.¡¨ The first truly sectional party to appear (¡§foreshadowing the emergence of the Republican Party six years later¡¨) was the Free-________ Party. How did they propose to handle the question of slavery in the territories?
c. In 1848, Whig General Zachery __________, a potential Southern ally, was elected president. Sectional passions were aroused, however, when a gold rush prompted the new territory of _______________ to apply for early admission as a free state in 1849. If accepted, this would upset the delicate North-South sectional balance, then existing of ______ states each. Southerners were concerned about what they called the fugitive slave problem (facilitated by people like Harriet __________ and the ¡§Underground _____________¡¨ to Canada). Does this worry appear to have been a practical one or more a matter of the principle of protecting property rights? Why?
2. Compromise of 1850 (pp. 396¡V401)
a. In the momentous debate sparked by California¡¦s request for statehood, summarize the positions and critical roles played by the following three Old Guard politicians in putting together the Compromise of 1850.
(1) Henry Clay:
(2) John C. Calhoun:
(3) Daniel Webster (¡§7th of March Speech¡¨):
b. The Compromise of 1850 achieved some Northern objectives by admitting _____________ as a free state, taking away some disputed territory from the slave-holding state of ____________, and abolishing the slave trade (although not slavery per se) in _____________ D.C. In return, the main concession to the South was the tightening up of the ____________ Slave Law. Why do the authors conclude that the North ¡§got the better deal¡¨ and that emphasizing fugitive slaves was ¡§an appalling blunder on the part of the South¡¨?
3. Expansionism in the 1850s (pp. 401¡V404)
a. In 1852, the Democrat and ¡§pro-southern northerner¡¨ Franklin __________ won the presidency. Why, on p. 401, do the authors conclude that this election was ¡§fraught with frightening significance¡¨?
b. Expansionists, especially in the South, had a field day in the early 1850s. Note the adventures of William _________ in Nicaragua and the resolution of disputes with Britain over a potential canal route across the Isthmus of Panama in the Clayton-_________ Treaty of 1850. A fleet under Commodore Matthew _________ helped open ________ to trade ties in 1854. And plans to grab _______ from Spain were foiled when the __________ Manifesto became public in 1854.
4. Douglas and the Kansas-Nebraska Act, 1854 (pp. 404¡V408)
a. The issue of a railroad to the Pacific precipitated a major sectional split in 1853 when the ___________ Purchase of territory from __________ seemed to favor the technically easier southern route. Motivated by a desire to benefit both his region and himself, Illinois Senator Stephen A. _____________ countered in 1854 with a northern route proposal that would require the area west of the Missouri River to be formally organized into a territory. His proposal was to split this territory into two parts, with the status of slavery to be decided on the principle of ¡§_____________ sovereignty.¡¨ The northern territory, to be called _____________, would presumably vote for ¡§free-soil,¡¨ while the southern territory, to be called _____________, was expected to favor slavery. Despite opposing a northern railroad route, why did the South ¡§rise to the bait¡¨ (p. 406) and support this act?
b. The authors obviously consider pushing the Kansas-Nebraska Act to have been a major blunder on the part of Douglas, making the ¡§dreaded sectional rift¡¨ permanently irreversible. The act he pushed through in 1854 required repeal of the _____________ Compromise of 1820, which had prohibited slavery in any territories formed from the ____________ Purchase north of the southern boundary of Missouri (latitude 36„a 30'). Why did Northern free-soilers, soon to form the purely-sectional ____________ Party around this very issue, so vehemently oppose the bill, even though it would promote a railroad that would benefit their region economically?
TIMELINE TO CIVIL WAR
Refer to the note at the beginning of these questions. Draw a timeline of the key events between 1848 and 1861 and try to decide at what point you think an armed conflict between the two regions became inevitable¡Xbeyond which even extraordinary statesmanship could not have healed the wounds.
1844
1845
1846
1847
1848
1849
1850
1851
1852
1853
1854
1855
1856
1857
1858
1859
1860
1861
CHAPTER 18 TERM SHEET
Sectional Struggle
Pages 390¡V396
1848 election
Gen. Lewis Cass (Dem.)
Gen. Zachery Taylor (Whig)
¡§Popular sovereignty¡¨
¡§Free-Soil¡¨ Party
Martin Van Buren
California gold rush (1848)
California admission application (1849)
Underground Railroad
Harriet Tubman
Fugitive slave laws
Pages 396¡V401
Henry Clay
John C. Calhoun
Daniel Webster
Seventh of March Speech (1850)
William H. Seward
Millard Fillmore (1850)
Compromise of 1850
Pages 401¡V404
Election of 1852
Franklin Pierce (Dem.)
Gen. Winfield Scott (Whig)
Whig Party demise (1852)
William Walker
Clayton-Bulwer Treaty (1850)
Com. Matthew C. Perry (Japan, 1854)
Ostend Manifesto (1854)
Pages 404¡V408
Pacific railroad route
Jefferson Davis
Gadsden Purchase (1853)
Sen. Stephen A. Douglas
Kansas-Nebraska Act (1854)
Missouri Compromise of 1820
Republican Party (1854)
AP Economics Test : Chapter 20-25
1. The income effect indicates that:
A) a rise in money income will cause consumers to buy smaller quantities of normal goods.
B) when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product now that it is relatively cheaper.
C) consumers should substitute among various products until the marginal utility from the last unit of each product purchased is the same.
D) when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific money income.
2. If the price of normal good X rises, the income:
A) and substitution effects will both induce the consumer to buy less of X.
B) and substitution effects will both induce the consumer to buy more of X.
C) effect will induce the consumer to buy more of X and the substitution effect will induce him to buy less.
D) effect will induce the consumer to buy less of X and the substitution will induce him to buy more.
3. If the price of a product falls, that product becomes cheaper and people will want to purchase more of it in place of other goods. This statement best describes:
A) the income effect. B) the substitution effect. C) a complementary good. D) an inferior good.
4. A fall in the price of a good increases the real income or purchasing power of consumers so that they are able to buy more of the product. This statement best describes:
A) the income effect. B) a complementary good. C) the substitution effect. D) an inferior good.
5. The substitution effect indicates that:
A) a decline in money income will cause the consumer to buy more inferior goods and fewer superior goods.
B) consumer equilibrium can only be achieved when the consumer is buying substitute goods.
C) when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product at the expense of other products.
D) when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific money income.
6. The substitution effect causes a consumer to buy less of a product when its price rises because the:
A) consumer's real income has decreased.
B) consumer's real income has increased.
C) product is now less expensive compared to other products.
D) product is now more expensive compared to other products.
7. Utility:
A) is synonymous with usefulness. C) is easy to quantify.
B) is want-satisfying power. D) rarely varies from person to person.
8. The ability of a good or service to satisfy wants is called:
A) utility maximization. B) opportunity cost. C) revenue potential. D) utility.
9. The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:
A) total utility is maximized when consumers obtain the same amount of utility per unit of each product consumed.
B) beyond some point additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.
C) price must be lowered to induce firms to supply more of a product.
D) it will take larger and larger amounts of resources beyond some point to produce successive units of a product.
10. Total utility may be determined by:
A) multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
B) summing the marginal utilities of each unit consumed.
C) multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by product price.
D) multiplying the marginal utility of the first unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
11. The theory of consumer behavior assumes that :
A) consumers behave rationally, maximizing their satisfactions.
B) consumers have unlimited money incomes.
C) consumers do not know how much marginal utility they obtain from succesive units of various products.
D) marginal utility is constant.
12. To maximize utility a consumer should allocate money income so that the:
A) elasticity of demand on all products purchased is the same.
B) marginal utility obtained from the last dollar spent on each product is the same.
C) total utility derived from each product consumed is the same.
D) marginal utility of the last unit of each product consumed is the same.
13. Mrs. Green is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
A) the two commodities are substitute goods.
B) Mrs. Green should spend more on pretzels and less on soda.
C) Mrs. Green should spend more on soda and less on pretzels.
D) Mrs. Green is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts.
14. A consumer who has a limited budget will maximize utility or satisfaction when the:
A) ratios of the marginal utility of each product purchased divided by its price are equal.
B) total utility derived from each product purchased is the same.
C) marginal utility of each product purchased is the same.
D) price of each product purchased is the same.
15. Suppose that Dave normally orders two tacos, but on seeing they are on sale, decides to buy three. Dave's decision is best explained by the:
A) law of increasing opportunity costs. C) principle of comparative advantage.
B) law of supply. D) the principle of utility maximization.
16. Diminishing marginal utility explains why:
A) the income effect exceeds the substitution effect.
B) the substitution effect exceeds the income effect.
C) supply curves are upsloping.
D) demand curves are downsloping.
17. A consumer's demand curve for a product is downsloping because:
A) total utility falls below marginal utility as more of a product is consumed.
B) marginal utility diminishes as more of a product is consumed.
C) time becomes less valuable as more of a product is consumed.
D) the income and substitution effects precisely offset each other.
18. Which of the following has been a significant factor in DVDs replacing video cassettes (VCs) in the retail home video market?
A) DVDs are now less than one-half the price of VCs.
B) A scarcity of production capacity has curtailed the manufacture of VCs.
C) Most consumers perceive DVD sound and video reproduction to be of higher quality.
D) The price of DVD players has increased dramatically.
19. Consumer demand for DVDs has increased over time because the price of DVD players has:
A) decreased, and DVD players and video cassette players are substitute goods.
B) decreased, and DVD players and video cassette players are complementary goods.
C) increased, and DVD players and video cassette players are substitute goods.
D) increased, and DVD players and video cassette players are complementary goods.
20. "Essential" water is cheaper than "nonessential" diamonds because:
A) new industrial uses for diamonds have been discovered.
B) the supply of water is great relative to demand and the supply of diamonds is small relative to demand.
C) although the total utility of diamonds is greater, their marginal utility is small.
D) the supply of diamonds is great relative to demand and the supply of water is small relative to demand.
21. The income effect indicates that:
A) a rise in money income will cause consumers to buy smaller quantities of normal goods.
B) when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product now that it is relatively cheaper.
C) consumers should substitute among various products until the marginal utility from the last unit of each product purchased is the same.
D) when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific money income.
22. If the price of a product falls, that product becomes cheaper and people will want to purchase more of it in place of other goods. This statement best describes:
A) the income effect. B) the substitution effect. C) a complementary good. D) an inferior good.
23. A fall in the price of a good increases the real income or purchasing power of consumers so that they are able to buy more of the product. This statement best describes:
A) the income effect. B) a complementary good. C) the substitution effect. D) an inferior good.
24. If steak is a normal good and its price rises:
A) the amount purchased may either increase or decrease depending on the relative importance of the income and substitution effects.
B) both the income and substitution effects suggest that less will be purchased.
C) the substitution effect suggests more will be purchased, but the income effect suggests less will be purchased.
D) the income effect suggests more will be purchased, but the substitution effect suggests less will be purchased.
25. The substitution effect indicates that:
A) a decline in money income will cause the consumer to buy more inferior goods and fewer superior goods.
B) consumer equilibrium can only be achieved when the consumer is buying substitute goods.
C) when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product at the expense of other products.
D) when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific money income.
26. The substitution effect causes a consumer to buy less of a product when its price rises because the:
A) consumer's real income has decreased.
B) consumer's real income has increased.
C) product is now less expensive compared to other products.
D) product is now more expensive compared to other products.
27. Utility:
A) is synonymous with usefulness. C) is easy to quantify.
B) is want-satisfying power. D) rarely varies from person to person.
28. The ability of a good or service to satisfy wants is called:
A) utility maximization. B) opportunity cost. C) revenue potential. D) utility.
29. A product has utility if it:
A) takes more and more resources to produce successive units of it.
B) violates the law of demand.
C) satisfies consumer wants.
D) is useful.
30. The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:
A) total utility is maximized when consumers obtain the same amount of utility per unit of each product consumed.
B) beyond some point additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.
C) price must be lowered to induce firms to supply more of a product.
D) it will take larger and larger amounts of resources beyond some point to produce successive units of a product.
31. The first Pepsi yields Craig 18 units of utility and the second yields him an additional 12 units of utility. His total utility from three Pepsis is 38 units of utility. The marginal utility of the third Pepsi is:
A) 26 units of utility. B) 6 units of utility. C) 8 units of utility. D) 38 units of utility.
32. Marginal utility is the:
A) sensitivity of consumer purchases of a good to changes in the price of that good.
B) change in total utility obtained by consuming one more unit of a good.
C) change in total utility obtained by consuming another unit of a good divided by the change in the price of that good.
D) total utility associated with the consumption of a certain number of units of a good divided by the number of units consumed.
33. Total utility may be determined by:
A) multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
B) summing the marginal utilities of each unit consumed.
C) multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by product price.
D) multiplying the marginal utility of the first unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
34. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Utility and usefulness are synonymous.
B) The marginal utility derived from successive units of a product tends to be similar for all consumers.
C) Because utility is not measurable, the utility-maximizing rule provides no useful insights as to consumer behavior.
D) A product may yield utility, but not be functionally useful.
35. Mrs. Green is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
A) the two commodities are substitute goods.
B) Mrs. Green should spend more on pretzels and less on soda.
C) Mrs. Green should spend more on soda and less on pretzels.
D) Mrs. Green is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts.
36. When a consumer is maximizing total utility,
A) the average utility from each dollar spent is the same.
B) total utility cannot be increased by reallocating expenditures among various products.
C) the total utility obtainable from each product is at a maximum.
D) the marginal utility of the last unit of each product purchased is zero.
37. Diminishing marginal utility explains why:
A) the income effect exceeds the substitution effect.
B) the substitution effect exceeds the income effect.
C) supply curves are upsloping.
D) demand curves are downsloping.
38. A consumer's demand curve for a product is downsloping because:
A) total utility falls below marginal utility as more of a product is consumed.
B) marginal utility diminishes as more of a product is consumed.
C) time becomes less valuable as more of a product is consumed.
D) the income and substitution effects precisely offset each other.
39. The utility-maximizing rule:
A) is inconsistent with the law of demand. C) implies a leftward shifting demand curve.
B) implies a perfectly elastic demand curve. D) is consistent with the law of demand.
40. The long run is characterized by:
A) the relevance of the law of diminishing returns.
B) at least one fixed input.
C) insufficient time for firms to enter or leave the industry.
D) the ability of the firm to change its plant size.
41. Marginal product is:
A) the increase in total output attributable to the employment of one more worker.
B) the increase in total revenue attributable to the employment of one more worker.
C) the increase in total cost attributable to the employment of one more worker.
D) total product divided by the number of workers employed.
42. The law of diminishing returns indicates that:
A) as extra units of a variable resource are added to a fixed resource, marginal product will decline beyond some point.
B) because of economies and diseconomies of scale a competitive firm's long-run average total cost curve will be U-shaped.
C) the demand for goods produced by purely competitive industries is downsloping.
D) beyond some point the extra utility derived from additional units of a product will yield the consumer smaller and smaller extra amounts of satisfaction.
43. Which of the following is correct?
A) When total product is rising, both average product and marginal product must also be rising.
B) When marginal product is falling, total product must be falling.
C) When marginal product is falling, average product must also be falling.
D) Marginal product rises faster than average product and also falls faster than average product.
44. Which of the following is not correct?
A) Where marginal product is greater than average product, average product is rising.
B) Where total product is at a maximum, average product is also at a maximum.
C) Where marginal product is zero, total product is at a maximum.
D) Marginal product becomes negative before average product becomes negative.
45. Fixed cost is:
A) the cost of producing one more unit of capital, say, machinery.
B) any cost which does not change when the firm changes its output.
C) average cost multiplied by the firm's output.
D) usually zero in the short run
46. Which of the following is most likely to be a fixed cost?
A) shipping charges C) wages for unskilled labor
B) property insurance premiums D) expenditures for raw materials
47. Which of the following is most likely to be a variable cost?
A) fuel and power payments C) rental payments on IBM equipment
B) interest on business loans. D) real estate taxes
48. Average fixed cost:
A) equals marginal cost when average total cost is at its minimum.
B) may be found for any output by adding average variable cost and average total cost.
C) graphs as a U-shaped curve.
D) declines continually as output increases.
49. When average fixed costs are falling:
A) average total cost must be falling.
B) average variable cost may be either rising or falling.
C) marginal cost must be falling.
D) average variable costs must be rising.
50. Assume that in the short run a firm is producing 100 units of output, has average total costs of $200, and average variable costs of $150. The firm's total fixed costs are:
A) $5,000. B) $500. C) $.50. D) $50.
51. Other things equal, if the fixed costs of a firm were to increase by $100,000 per year, which of the following would happen?
A) Marginal costs and average variable costs would both rise.
B) Average fixed costs and average variable costs would rise.
C) Average fixed costs and average total costs would rise.
D) Average fixed costs would rise, but marginal costs would fall.
52. Economists would describe the U.S. automobile industry as:
A) purely competitive. B) an oligopoly. C) monopolistically competitive. D) a pure monopoly.
53. Which of the following industries most closely approximates pure competition?
A) agriculture B) farm implements C) clothing D) steel
54. Economists use the term imperfect competition to describe:
A) all industries which produce standardized products.
B) any industry in which there is no nonprice competition.
C) a pure monopoly only.
D) those markets which are not purely competitive.
55 .In which of the following industry structures is the entry of new firms the most difficult?
A) pure monopoly B) oligopoly C) monopolistic competition D) pure competition
56. An industry comprised of 40 firms, none of which has more than 3 percent of the total market for a differentiated product is an example of:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
57. A one-firm industry is known as:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
58. An industry comprised of four firms, each with about 25 percent of the total market for a product is an example of:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
59. An industry comprised of a very large number of sellers producing a standardized product is known as:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
60. An industry comprised of a small number of firms, each of which considers the potential reactions of its rivals in making price-output decisions is called:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
61. Which of the following statements applies to a purely competitive producer?
A) It will not advertise its product.
B) In long-run equilibrium it will earn an economic profit.
C) Its product will have a brand name.
D) Its product is slightly different from those of its competitors.
62. A purely competitive seller is:
A) both a "price maker" and a "price taker." C) a "price taker."
B) neither a "price maker" nor a "price taker." D) a "price maker."
63. Which of the following is not characteristic of pure competition?
A) price strategies by firms C) no barriers to entry
B) a standardized product D) a larger number of sellers
64. The demand schedule or curve confronted by the individual purely competitive firm is:
A) relatively elastic, that is, the elasticity coefficient is greater than unity.
B) perfectly elastic.
C) relatively inelastic, that is, the elasticity coefficient is less than unity.
D) perfectly inelastic.
65. Which of the following is characteristic of a purely competitive seller's demand curve?
A) Price and marginal revenue are equal at all levels of output.
B) Average revenue is less than price.
C) Its elasticity coefficient is 1 at all levels of output.
D) It is the same as the market demand curve.
66. Marginal revenue is the:
A) change in product price associated with the sale of one more unit of output.
B) change in average revenue associated with the sale of one more unit of output.
C) difference between product price and average total cost.
D) change in total revenue associated with the sale of one more unit of output.
67. Firms seek to maximize:
A) per unit profit. B) total revenue. C) total profit. D) market share.
68. The MR = MC rule can be restated for a purely competitive seller as P = MC because:
A) each additional unit of output adds exactly its price to total revenue.
B) the firm's average revenue curve is downsloping.
C) the market demand curve is downsloping.
D) the firm's marginal revenue and total revenue curves will coincide.
69. Pure monopoly means:
A) any market in which the demand curve to the firm is downsloping.
B) a standardized product being produced by many firms.
C) a single firm producing a product for which there are no close substitutes.
D) a large number of firms producing a differentiated product.
70. Which of the following is correct?
A) Both purely competitive and monopolistic firms are "price takers."
B) Both purely competitive and monopolistic firms are "price makers."
C) A purely competitive firm is a "price taker," while a monopolist is a "price maker."
D) A purely competitive firm is a "price maker," while a monopolist is a "price taker."
71. A purely monopolistic industry:
A) has no entry barriers.
B) has a downward sloping demand curve.
C) produces a product or service for which there are many close substitutes.
D) earns only a normal profit in the long run.
72. A pure monopolist is:
A) any firm realizing all existing economies of scale.
B) any firm whose demand curve is downsloping.
C) any firm which can engage in price discrimination.
D) a one-firm industry.
73. Barriers to entering an industry:
A) are justified because they result in allocative efficiency.
B) are justified because they result in productive efficiency.
C) are the basis for monopoly.
D) apply only to purely monopolistic industries.
74. Patents:
A) give firms the exclusive right to produce or control a product for 100 years.
B) discourage research and innovation.
C) are a source of monopoly.
D) are also called trademarks.
75. A natural monopoly occurs when:
A) long-run average costs decline continuously through the range of demand.
B) a firm owns or controls some resource essential to production.
C) long-run average costs rise continuously as output is increased.
D) economies of scale are obtained at relatively low levels of output.
76. Monopolistic competition means:
A) a market situation where competition is based entirely on product differentiation and advertising.
B) a large number of firms producing a standardized or homogeneous product.
C) many firms producing differentiated products.
D) a few firms producing a standardized or homogeneous product.
77. Monopolistic competition is characterized by a:
A) few dominant firms and low entry barriers.
B) large number of firms and substantial entry barriers.
C) large number of firms and low entry barriers.
D) few dominant firms and substantial entry barriers.
78. The term oligopoly indicates:
A) a one-firm industry.
B) many producers of a differentiated product.
C) a few firms producing either a differentiated or a homogeneous product.
D) an industry whose four-firm concentration ratio is low.
79. In an oligopolistic market:
A) one firm is always dominant.
B) products may be standardized or differentiated.
C) the four largest firms account for 20 percent or less of total sales.
D) the industry is monopolistically competitive.
80. The automobile, household appliance, and automobile tire industries are all illustrations of:
A) homogeneous oligopoly. C) pure monopoly.
B) monopolistic competition. D) differentiated oligopoly.
CHAPTER 20
North And South At War, 1861–1865
(Note: The last two chapters focused on the key questions of the avoidability and/or inevitability of the monumental Civil War. If people before the war had had historical foresight and could have seen the true horror of the four-year fight to the death which was to follow, do you think that leaders might have worked harder to find a compromise solution? Might the North have let the South go in peace?)
1. Lincoln, Fort Sumter, and War Aims (pp. 434–438)
a. Read the Lincoln quote leading off the chapter carefully. Lincoln had a unique opportunity and responsibility to define the objectives of the conflict from the Union perspective. He clearly does not say that an objective of the war is to free the slaves. What is the “central idea” for Lincoln? *** Why did he think that letting the South go in peace would make the idea of popular government “an absurdity”?
b. List three of the more practical reasons for resisting southern secession mentioned by the authors in the first section. *** Then put a (+) or a () by each one, depending on whether or not you feel that the problem was serious enough to have used force to keep the South in the Union.
(+) or ()
(1)
(2)
(3)
c. Lincoln’s problem of uniting the North to resist southern secession was aided when southern soldiers fired first, on the federal Fort _________ in the harbor at _____________, South Carolina, in _______ of 1861. He knew that the balance of power could be tipped by the crucial border states of ___________, ___________, ____________, ____________, and ____________. How were Lincoln’s stated war aims designed to appeal to these slave-holding border states?
2. Balance of Forces (pp. 438–441) List below some of the relative strengths of both the North and South (assuming that a strength of one side is a weakness of the other) going into the war.
SOUTH NORTH
3. Foreign Involvement (pp. 441–444)
a. How do the authors define the differing attitudes toward southern independence between the European aristocracy and the masses of working people?
(1) Aristocracy:
(2) Masses:
b. Two incidents almost brought Britain, which needed cotton imports from the South, into the war. One was the _________ Affair in which the U.S. took two Confederate diplomats off an English ship. The other involved the willingness of the British to build ships for the South, which could be used for raids such as that of the _______________ (ship name), on northern shipping.
4. Lincoln and Liberties (pp. 444–447)
a. The authors imply here that Lincoln’s personality and temperament were better suited to national leadership in an emergency than Jefferson Davis because Davis was too particular about following his own Constitution. List two examples of Lincoln’s exercise of arbitrary power. *** What do you think of such actions in wartime?
(1)
(2)
(3) Opinion:
b. Although most fighting men on both sides were volunteers, the _________ (North or South) had a deeper pool of manpower. Looking at the draft laws, cite an example for both North and South to support the charge that it was “a rich man's war but a poor man's fight.”
(1) North:
(2) South:
5. Economic Aspects of War (pp. 447–450)
a. (Note: You should have a basic understanding of who pays the huge cost of fighting a war. Especially try to grasp the inflationary impact of a government just printing more paper currency to pay its bills.) The ____________ (North or South) was better able financially to pay for the war. As you read the section beginning on p. 447, put a (+) in the column of the side that relied most heavily on each of these three means of financing, and a () in the other column. NORTH SOUTH
(1) Taxes and tariffs:
(2) Bonds and borrowing:
(3) Printing money:
b. Compare and contrast how the North and the South emerged from the war economically.
(1) North:
(2) South:
c. During the war, many women went into industrial employment for the first time. In the “caring professions,” Dr. Elizabeth ____________ helped organize the U.S. ____________ Commission (predecessor to today’s Red Cross) and Clara __________ helped expand and transform the ____________ profession.
CHAPTER 20 TERM SHEET
North and South at War
Pages 434–438
Fort Sumter (April 1861)
Richmond, Va.
Border states
North’s war aims
Pages 438–441
Robert E. Lee
“Stonewall” Jackson
Ulysses S. Grant
Pages 441–444
Trent Affair (1861)
The Alabama
The “Laird rams”
Dominion of Canada (1867)
Maximilian/Mexico (1863)
Pages 444–447
Jefferson Davis
Blockade
Writ of Habeas Corpus
Conscription Law (1863)
“Three-hundred dollar men”
Draft riots
Pages 447–450
Income tax
Morrill Tariff Act (1861)
“Greenbacks”
War bonds (Jay Cooke & Co.)
National Banking System (1863)
Homestead Act of 1862
U.S. Sanitary Commission
CHAPTER 22
Reconstruction, 1865–1877
1. Problems of Peace (pp. 477–479) In this section, the authors describe the collapsed economy and social structure of the South and the “beaten but unbent” attitude of many white southerners. List in your own words the four main questions that the authors say faced the country after the war.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
2. The Freed Slaves (pp. 479–481) After the war, Congress established the ______________ Bureau under sympathetic Gen. Oliver O. _____________ (Note: He helped found a major university in Washington, D.C., that is named after him.) to provide basic services, education, and confiscated land to the newly freed but unprepared ex-slaves. (Note: This was the first attempt by the federal government to provide direct social services to the population.) *** What do you think was the most immediate priority of black families in the South, education or land to farm? Why do you think the North would not or could not deliver on its promise of “40 acres and a mule”?
3. Johnson vs. Congress (pp. 481-489) The essential issue in the dispute after the war was whether to bind up the wounds as quickly as possible - even if that meant perpetuating much of the old southern social structure—versus those who felt that, to justify the horrors of a four-year war, the North had a responsibility to force significant change on the South—land redistribution, education, punishment for rebels, political and economic rights for freed slaves, etc. The basic problem was indecision: for two years the country started out under the easy presidential Reconstruction and then shifted abruptly to the tough version when Congress took over.
a. The authors say that President Andrew _____________ was clearly not fit by ideology or temperament to lead the postwar Reconstruction. Nevertheless, he had agreed with __________ before his death that easy terms should be offered. With Congress not in session, Johnson issued a proclamation that states could be re-admitted simply by renouncing secession, repudiating Confederate debts, and ratifying the ______ Amendment outlawing slavery. Southern states, believing that they would not be occupied by a northern army, began instituting the infamous _________ Codes, which regulated the social behavior of freed blacks and essentially bound them economically to their former masters.
b. Aroused, Congress refused to seat the “whitewashed rebels” who showed up in Washington to represent the states to be re-admitted under Johnson’s plan. In March 1866, Congress passed a __________ Rights Bill over Johnson’s veto and then required that Southern states also ratify the new ____ Amendment, which granted full rights of citizenship, excluding voting, to the freedmen. Assurance of voting rights would be required later under the ____ Amendment. The Radical Republicans strengthened their position in the 1866 congressional elections and then prepared to impose their own plan under the leadership in the Senate of Charles ____________ and in the House of Thaddeus _______________.
c. Read the following quotes from Lincoln and Stevens, then fill in the chart below.
Abraham Lincoln - Second Inaugural Address (March 4, 1865)
With malice toward none, with charity for all . . . let us strive on to finish the work we are in, to bind up the nation’s wounds, to care for him who shall have borne the battle and for his widow and orphan, to do all which may achieve and cherish a just and lasting peace among ourselves and with all nations.
Thaddeus Stevens
The whole fabric of Southern society must be changed. . . . The Southern states have been despotisms, not governments of the people. . . . If the South is ever to be made a safe republic, let her lands be cultivated by the toil of the owners or the free labor of intelligent citizens. This must be done even though it drives her nobility into exile. If they go, all the better.
What objectives have the highest priority for Lincoln and for Stevens and which objectives are of lesser or no priority? What is the underlying assumption of both men about why the war was fought and why so many sacrifices were made?
Lincoln Stevens
(1) High priority:
(2) Low priority:
(3) Underlying assumption:
c. *** If you had been a northerner after the war, do you think you would have been (1) a Radical ready to use government power and money to force change in the South, or (2) would you have been in the Moderate camp, passing legal protections for the freedmen but leaving it largely up to the states to rebuild their economies and societies? Why?
4. Military Reconstruction, 1867–1877 (pp. 489–494)
a. Congress finally sent in the troops to occupy ____ (number) military districts in 18___, two years after the war ended. The purpose was largely to enfranchise blacks eventually through passage of the ____ Amendment, and to set up friendly state governments dominated by the Republican Party. This generated massive resentment on the part of white southerners. *** Do you think that military occupation would have been more acceptable in the South if it had been instituted immediately after the war? Why or why not?
b. *** What do you think of the requirement that freed slaves, kept largely illiterate by their former masters, be given immediate voting privileges?
c. After the northern troops left each state, the friendly Republican state governments were replaced by “Redeemer” governments. Who were the “Redeemers”?
d. Why were women’s rights activists such as Elizabeth Cady Stanton and Susan B. Anthony upset by the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments?
e. Be careful of the connotations of the words we use. How did southerners define the following terms and how might sympathetic northerners describe the same people?
Southerners Northerners
(1) “Scalawags”:
(2) “Carpetbaggers”:
f. Try to summarize briefly the authors’ conclusions (pp. 491–493) about the performance of state governments under Radical Reconstruction, during which blacks exercised full political rights.
g. List two methods used by the Ku Klux Klan and others to keep blacks from voting and generally to keep them subservient.
(1)
(2)
5. Impeachment of Johnson (pp. 494–495) (Note: Under the Constitution, a president can be removed for nebulously-worded “high crimes and misdemeanors.” Like “bringing charges” or “indicting” a person in a criminal court, the House first has to approve “impeachment.” Then the Senate acts as a jury in a trial and must vote to “convict” before the president can be removed. Johnson was impeached but not convicted. Nixon was never formally even impeached because he resigned first. Clinton, like Johnson, was impeached by the House but not convicted.)
a. What were the charges brought against Johnson by the House? *** What do you think of those charges?
(1) Charges:
(2) Evaluation:
b. The Radicals failed to convict by only one vote. Why do the authors conclude on p. 495 that the nation “narrowly avoided a bad precedent”? *** How does this assessment apply to Clinton’s impeachment?
6. Reflection (pp. 496–497)
a. What do the authors mean when they say on p. 497 that the “Republicans acted from a mixture of idealism and political expediency”?
b. Note the quote from Frederick Douglass: The black man “was free from the individual master, but a slave of society.” In this respect the authors accuse the Moderates of not fully recognizing the magnitude of the task of reforming southern society. Further, they conclude that the Radical program just might have worked had it been fully implemented—land reform, etc. But this, of course, would have made the South even angrier! *** Do you have any reaction to all this? What ideas do you have about what really should have been done?
7. Varying Viewpoints (pp. 498–499) Early historians held the view that Reconstruction was “a kind of national disgrace” foisted on the noble South by a vindictive North. (Note: This view was graphically presented and popularized by the country’s first blockbuster movie, Birth of a Nation, produced in 1915 by D. W. Griffith.) How did the Civil Rights movement of the 1950s and 1960s affect the way historians have interpreted the Reconstruction period?
CHAPTER 22 TERM SHEET
Reconstruction
Pages 477–479
Christmas pardons (1868)
Pages 479–481
Conventions of Freedmen
American Missionary Association
Freedman’s Bureau (1865–1872)
Gen. Oliver O. Howard
Pages 481–489
Andrew Johnson
Lincoln’s 10 Percent Reconstruction Plan (1863)
Wade-Davis Bill (50 percent, 1864)
Pocket-veto
Radical Republicans
Johnson’s Reconstruction Plan (May 1865)
Thirteenth Amendment
Black Codes
Sharecroppers
Civil Rights Bill (1866)
Fourteenth Amendment
1866 congressional elections
Sen. Charles Sumner
Rep. Thaddeus Stevens
Pages 489494
Military Reconstruction Act (1867)
Fifteenth Amendment
Ex parte Mulligan (1866)
“Radical” regimes
“Redeemers”
Union League
Hiram Revels/Blanche Bruce
“Scalawags”
“Carpetbaggers”
Ku Klux Klan
Force Acts (18701871)
Disfranchisement
Pages 494–495
Tenure of Office Act (1867)
Edwin M. Stanton
Rep. Benjamin F. Butler
Johnson impeachment
Sen. Ben Wade
Pages 496–497
Alaska purchase (1867)
“Seward’s Folly”
CHAPTER 25
Urbanization, Immigration, and Culture, 1865–1900
1. Urbanization (pp. 557–560) This section highlights some of the post–Civil War trends that helped transform rural America into a country that would be much more familiar to us today. Looking at the chart on p. 559, you can see that city-dwellers constituted only ____ percent of the population in 1790. By 1900, that had risen to _____ percent (about half of the 1990 figure of _____ percent). Improved agricultural productivity helped feed the urban population. It also forced European and American farmers off the land and into the cities looking for industrial jobs. Cities could grow upwards because of the ___________ (means for moving people up) and the steel-framed skyscraper made popular by Chicago architect Louis _____________. Commuting to the suburbs became possible because of mass transit improvements such as the electric ___________. The city offered attractions such as electric light, indoor plumbing, _____________ (the new communications device), and shopping at department stores. On the other hand, list a few of the disadvantages of primitive city life:
2. The “New” Immigration (pp. 561–571)
a. Compare and contrast the characteristics of the “new” and “old” immigration.
(1) Old (1840s–1880s):
(2) New (1880s–1920s):
b. *** Can you make any general conclusions about immigration from the chart on p. 561?
c. Though America accepted large numbers of immigrants, the government provided virtually no social or economic services to these immigrants. How and why did the urban political machines (such as “Boss” Tweed in New York) provide many of these services?
d. The authors say that the “social gospel,” as advocated by ministers like Walter ___________________, tried to get the churches involved in solving the new urban problems. They also mention the name of Jane __________ of Chicago as a central person in bringing mostly middle-class women into the new occupation of social work and founding the first American “settlement house” called ________ House. What connection do the authors make between this movement and the changing roles of women?
e. What was the significance of the immigration law passed in 1882?
3. Religion and Education (pp. 571–573) Many churches became more secular in the face of an increasingly materialistic culture. The new immigration drastically expanded the ____________ and __________ faiths and new varieties emerged, including the __________ Army and the Christian __________ Church. Finally this section covers the important explosion of public and private schools (including parochial schools for the new Catholic immigrants).
4. African-Americans react to “Jim Crow” (pp. 573–575) a. By 1900, the day-to-day plight of blacks was little better than it had been under slavery. Summarize the views of these two leaders on the subject of black advancement. *** Under conditions prevailing at the time, which of these would you have supported and why?
(1) Booker T. Washington:
(2) W. E. B. DuBois:
(3) Your view:
5. Universities, Press, and Literature (pp. 575–581) Expansion of public universities was boosted by passage of the __________ Act of 1862 granting land for this purpose, and “robber barons” such as Leland __________ used their wealth to found many private universities. Andrew _________ funded the expansion of public libraries and the circulation of newspapers increased, notably with the competition between “yellow journalists” Joseph __________ and William Randolph __________. Of the extensive list of quality writers and authors discussed at the end of this section, pick three that you like and list a few of their characteristics. *** Have you read anything by any of them?
(1)
(2)
(3)
6. Moral Values and Women’s Rights (pp. 581–585) a. The new urban environment sparked debate over changing sexual attitudes and the role of women in the family. A new generation of women activists formed the National American Women’s ____________ Association in 18___. What were the differing arguments of the following two leaders in favor of women’s suffrage? *** Then put a (W) by the leader whose argument seems to you to be most similar to that of Booker T. Washington, and a (D) by the one whose argument you can connect to that of W. E. B. DuBois.
____ 1. Charlotte Perkins Gilman:
____ 2. Carrie Chapman Catt:
7. Reform, Art, and Culture (pp. 585–589) Women, most notably the colorful Carrie A. ________, led the fight against excessive drinking (mostly by men!), forming the Woman’s ____________ ______________ Association in 1874. Artists of the period included James _________ and Winslow __________. Popular music blossomed, including uniquely American forms of blues, ragtime, and jazz. The biggest world’s fair ever, the Great __________ Exposition, was held in __________ in 1893. And urban Americans had the time and money for new popular amusements such as the circus and spectator sports such as baseball, football, and boxing. *** After reading this chapter, reflect a bit on life at the end of the nineteenth century. Imagine growing up in this period and list one or two advantages and disadvantages compared to today.
(1) Advantages:
(2) Disadvantages:
CHAPTER 25 TERM SHEET
Urbanization, Immigration, and Culture
Pages 557–560
Louis Sullivan
Theodore Dreiser (Sister Carrie, 1900)
“Dumbbell” tenements
Pages 561–571
“Padrone system”
Boss Tweed
Walter Rauschenbusch
“Social Gospel”
Jane Addams
Hull House (1889)
Lillian Wald
Florence Kelley
“Nativism”
American Protective Association, 1887
Immigration restriction laws, 1882 and 1885
Pages 571–573
Dwight Lyman Moody
Cardinal Gibbons
Mary Baker Eddy
“Normal” schools
Kindergartens
Chautauqua movement
Pages 573–575
Booker T. Washington
George Washington Carver
W. E. B. DuBois
NAACP (1910)
Pages 575–581
Morrill Act (1862)
Hatch Act (1867)
Dr. Charles W. Eliot
William James
Carnegie libraries
Joseph Pulitzer
“Yellow journalism”
William Randolph Hearst
Edwin L. Godkin (The Nation, 1865)
Henry George (Progress and Poverty, 1879)
Edward Bellamy (Looking Backward, 1888)
Gen. Lewis Wallace (Ben Hur, 1880)
Horatio Alger
Walt Whitman (Leaves of Grass)
Emily Dickinson
Kate Chopin (The Awakening, 1899)
Mark Twain
Bret Harte
William Dean Howells
Stephen Crane (Red Badge of Courage, 1895)
Henry James
Jack London
Frank Norris
Pages 581–585
Victoria Woodhull
Anthony Comstock
Charlotte Perkins Gilman
National Women’s Suffrage Association, (NWSA, 1890)
Carrie Chapman Catt
Ida B. Wells
National Association of Colored Women (1896)
Pages 585–589
Women’s Christian Temperance Association (WCTA, 1874)
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
1. The main purpose of the Black Codes was to
[A] allow blacks to marry.
[B] ensure a stable labor supply.
[C] prevent blacks from becoming sharecroppers.
[D] create a system of justice for ex-slaves.
[E] guarantee freedom for the blacks.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
2. In his 10 percent plan for Reconstruction, President Lincoln promised
[A] rapid readmission of Southern states into the Union.
[B] the restoration of the planter aristocracy to political power.
[C] a plan to allow 10 percent of blacks to vote.
[D] former slaves the right to vote.
[E] severe punishment of Southern political and military leaders.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
3. Match each presidential candidate in the 1860 election below with his party’s position on the slavery question.
___ A. Abraham Lincoln
___ B. Stephen Douglas
___ C. John Breckenridge
___ D. John Bell
1. extend slavery into the territories
2. ban slavery from the territories
3. preserve the Union by compromise
4. enforce popular sovereignty
[A] A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
[B] A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
[C] A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
[D] A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
[E] A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
4. The Compromise of 1877 resulted in
[A] a renewal of the Republican commitment to protect black civil rights in the South.
[B] the withdrawal of federal troops from the South.
[C] the election of a Democrat to the presidency.
[D] passage of the Bland-Allison Silver Purchase Act.
[E] a plan to build the first transcontinental railroad.
5. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
African-Americans who fought for the Union Army in the Civil War
[A] accounted for less than 1 percent of total Union enlistments.
[B] refused to serve under white officers.
[C] served bravely and suffered extremely heavy casualties.
[D] served mainly as supply personnel.
[E] saw little actual combat.
6. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Which of the following was not one of the Reconstruction era amendments?
[A] Fourteenth
[B] Thirteenth
[C] Eighteenth
[D] Fifteenth
[E] Twelfth
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
7. After John Brown’s raid on Harpers Ferry, the South concluded that
[A] the raid was an isolated incident.
[B] Brown had been attempting to defend his right to own slaves.
[C] the U.S. army could not protect slavery.
[D] Brown should be put in an insane asylum.
[E] the North was dominated by “Brown-loving” Republicans.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
8. As a result of the Civil War,
[A] political dishonesty grew while honesty in business rose.
[B] waste, extravagance, speculation, and graft reduced the moral stature of the Republic.
[C] the great majority of political and business leaders became corrupt.
[D] the North developed a strong sense of moral superiority.
[E] the population of the United States declined.
9. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Freedom for Southern blacks at the end of the Civil War
[A] came haltingly and unevenly in different parts of the conquered Confederacy.
[B] enabled large numbers to move to the big cities in the North.
[C] was achieved without the use of Union soldiers.
[D] came with relative ease.
[E] was a source of considerable anxiety.
10. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The panic of 1857 resulted in
[A] a demand to end the government policy of giving away farmland.
[B] clamor for a higher tariff.
[C] calls for restrictions on land and stock speculation.
[D] the extension of slavery to the territories.
[E] price supports for farmers.
11. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
All of the following occurred as a result of the Emancipation Proclamation except
[A] the disappearance of European working-class support for the Union.
[B] sharp increases in Union desertions.
[C] complaints from abolitionists that it did not go far enough.
[D] heavy congressional defeats for Lincoln’s administration.
[E] mounting opposition in the North to an “abolition war.”
12. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
During the Civil War, women in the North
[A] agitated for the vote.
[B] worked on farms but not in cities.
[C] generally played a small role.
[D] had new opportunities opened to them in industry.
[E] saw their numbers in the manufacturing force greatly reduced.
13. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As a result of the Lincoln-Douglas debates,
[A] Lincoln was elected to the Senate.
[B] Douglas defeated Lincoln for the Senate.
[C] Lincoln’s national stature was diminished.
[D] Douglas increased his chances of winning the presidency.
[E] Illinois rejected the concept of popular sovereignty.
14. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Methods used by Ku Klux Klan members to achieve their goal of white supremacy included
[A] scare tactics.
[B] mutilation.
[C] murder.
[D] beatings.
[E] all of these.
15. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
“Spoilsmen” was the label attached to those who
[A] ravaged the pristine environment of the “golden West” for their own profit.
[B] manipulated railroad stocks to their own private advantage.
[C] engaged in political corruption.
[D] supported civil-service reform.
[E] expected government jobs from their party’s elected officeholders.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
16. Robert E. Lee decided to invade the North through Pennsylvania in order to
[A] seize Philadelphia and Pittsburgh.
[B] force the Union to ease its blockade of the South.
[C] stir northern draft resisters to rise in revolt.
[D] cut Northern supply lines.
[E] deliver a decisive blow that would strengthen the Northern peace movement.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
17. The group in the North most dangerous to the Union cause was the
[A] Northern Peace Democrats.
[B] Union Party.
[C] Radical Republicans.
[D] African-Americans.
[E] Northern War Democrats.
18. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
For blacks, emancipation meant all of the following except
[A] the right to get married.
[B] the opportunity for an education.
[C] the ability to search for lost family.
[D] that large numbers would move north.
[E] the opportunity to form their own churches.
19. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
In ruling on the Dred Scott case, the United States Supreme Court
[A] held that slaveowners could not take slaves into free territories.
[B] expected to lay to rest the issue of slavery in the territories.
[C] reunited the Democratic party.
[D] supported the concept of popular sovereignty.
[E] hoped to stimulate further debate on the slavery issue.
20. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The two major battles of the Civil War fought on Union soil were
[A] Gettysburg and Antietam.
[B] Peninsula Campaign and Fredericksburg.
[C] Shiloh and Chancellorsville.
[D] Bull Run and Vicksburg.
[E] Mobile and Missionary Ridge.
21. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Labor unrest in the 1870s and 1880s resulted in
[A] a ban on Irish immigration.
[B] congressional acts to ban strikes.
[C] growing middle class support for labor.
[D] the use of federal troops during strikes.
[E] Congress’s passing legislation supporting the formation of unions.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
22. That the Southern states were “conquered provinces” and therefore at the mercy of Congress for readmission to the Union was the view of
[A] the Supreme Court.
[B] President Lincoln.
[C] congressional Republicans.
[D] President Johnson.
[E] War Democrats.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
23. For congressional Republicans, one of the most troubling aspects of the Southern states’ restoration to the Union was that
[A] the South would be stronger than ever in national politics.
[B] a high tariff might be reinstituted.
[C] inexperienced Southern politicians would be elected.
[D] slavery might be re-established.
[E] blacks might actually gain election to the U.S. Congress.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
24. During Reconstruction, African-American women assumed new political roles which included all of the following except
[A] monitoring state constitutional conventions.
[B] voting.
[C] participating in black church life.
[D] organizing mass meetings.
[E] participating in political rallies.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
25. The greatest achievements of the Freedmen’s Bureau were in
[A] helping people to find employment.
[B] all of these.
[C] its distribution of land.
[D] the provision of food and clothing.
[E] education.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
26. One reason that the British did not try to break the Union blockade of the South during the Civil War was that
[A] the British upper class had supported the North from the onset of hostilities.
[B] the South resented British interference.
[C] they feared losing Northern grain shipments.
[D] they did not want to fight against the superior American navy.
[E] the war caused no economic problems for Britain.
27. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Lincoln hoped that a Union victory at Bull Run would
[A] destroy the economy of the South.
[B] pull the Border states out of the Confederacy.
[C] bring an end to slavery.
[D] lead to the capture of the Confederate capital at Richmond.
[E] all of these.
28. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Uncle Tom’s Cabin may be described as
[A] a romanticized account of slavery.
[B] a success only in the United States.
[C] having little effect on the start of the Civil War.
[D] a powerful political force.
[E] a firsthand account of slavery.
29. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
General Ulysses S. Grant’s basic strategy in the Civil War involved
[A] surrounding enemy armies for a long siege.
[B] striking tactically from the flanks.
[C] attacking the enemy one army at a time.
[D] assailing the enemy’s armies simultaneously and directly.
[E] extensive use of interior line defense.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
30. The government of the Confederate States of America was first organized in
[A] Charleston, South Carolina.
[B] Knoxville, Tennessee.
[C] Montgomery, Alabama.
[D] Richmond, Virginia.
[E] Atlanta, Georgia.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
31. One weapon that was used to put Boss Tweed, leader of New York City’s infamous Tweed Ring, in jail was
[A] New York City’s ethics laws.
[B] the cartoons of the political satirist Thomas Nast.
[C] granting immunity to Tweed’s cronies in exchange for testimony.
[D] the RICO racketeering act.
[E] federal income tax evasion charges.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
32. The fate of the Confederate leaders after 1865 was that
[A] none was ever allowed to hold political office again.
[B] all were eventually pardoned.
[C] most were jailed for an extended period of time.
[D] several were executed for treason.
[E] several went into exile in Brazil.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
33. Reconstruction might have been more successful if
[A] the U.S. army had more quickly suppressed the Ku Klux Klan.
[B] Thaddeus Stevens’s radical program of drastic economic reforms and stronger protection of political rights had been enacted.
[C] control of the South had been returned to Southerners much sooner.
[D] the federal government had not tampered with property rights.
[E] Andrew Johnson had won reelection in 1868.
34. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The final Union war strategy included all the following components except
[A] undermining the Confederate economy.
[B] guerrilla warfare.
[C] a naval blockade.
[D] seizing control of the Mississippi River.
[E] capturing Richmond.
35. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Radical congressional Reconstruction of the South finally ended when
[A] the Supreme Court ruled in Ex parte Milligan that military tribunals could not try civilians.
[B] President Johnson was not reelected in 1868.
[C] the last federal troops were removed in 1877.
[D] blacks showed they could defend their rights.
[E] the South accepted the Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
36. In the presidential election of 1868, Ulysses S. Grant
[A] owed his victory to the votes of former slaves.
[B] transformed his personal popularity into a large majority in the popular vote.
[C] gained his victory by winning the votes of the majority of whites.
[D] demonstrated his political skill.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
37. President Grover Cleveland aroused widespread public anger by his action of
[A] wasting the federal surplus on pork-barrel spending.
[B] taking the United States off the gold standard.
[C] borrowing $65 million in gold from J.P. Morgan’s banking syndicate.
[D] vetoing the Wilson-Gorman Tariff Act.
[E] using federal troops to suppress Populist demonstrations.
38. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As a politician, Andrew Johnson developed a reputation as
[A] an opponent of slavery.
[B] a poor public speaker.
[C] a secret Confederate sympathizer.
[D] a supporter of the planter aristocrats.
[E] a champion of the poor whites.
39. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
In the Civil War, the South won the battle of
[A] Vicksburg.
[B] Gettysburg.
[C] Atlanta.
[D] Lookout Mountain.
[E] Bull Run.
40. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The Black Codes provided for all of the following except
[A] a ban on jury service by blacks.
[B] punishment of blacks for idleness.
[C] a bar on blacks from renting land.
[D] fines for blacks who jumped labor contracts.
[E] voting by blacks.
41. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The Battle of Gettysburg was significant because
[A] it was decided so quickly.
[B] Union victory meant that the Southern cause was doomed.
[C] the war ended shortly thereafter.
[D] it guaranteed Lincoln’s re-election in 1864.
[E] the Union had uncovered the Confederates’ battle plans wrapped around cigars.
42. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Congress’s impeachment of President Johnson and attempt to remove him from office were directly precipitated by his
[A] dismissal of Secretary of War Stanton in 1867.
[B] veto of the Freedmen’s Bureau bill.
[C] readmission of Southern states under his policies in 1866.
[D] advice to Southern states not to ratify the Fourteenth Amendment.
[E] highly partisan “swing around the circle” in 1866.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
43. After halting Lee’s troops at Antietam, General George McClellan
[A] marched his army toward Atlanta.
[B] retired from the military.
[C] moved to confront Lee again at Gettysburg.
[D] was removed from his field command.
[E] was appointed to command the main Western army.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
44. Arrange the following in chronological order: (A) the Battle of Bull Run, (B) the Battle of Gettysburg, (C) Lee’s surrender at Appomattox, (D) the Battle of Antietam.
[A] A, D, B, C
[B] A, B, D, C
[C] C, A, D, B
[D] D, B, C, A
[E] B, C, A, D
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
45. Northern soldiers eventually became known for their
[A] lack of proper training.
[B] high-pitched battle yell.
[C] love of military pomp and hierarchy.
[D] discipline and determination.
[E] cowardice in battle.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
46. Many feminist leaders were disappointed with the Fourteenth Amendment because it
[A] did not free all the slaves.
[B] did not define what constituted equal national citizenship.
[C] gave women but not former slaves the right to vote.
[D] failed to give women the right to vote.
[E] failed to give women the right to serve on juries.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
47. President Lincoln’s decision on what to do about the situation at Fort Sumter in the first weeks of his administration can best be characterized as
[A] ambiguous.
[B] belligerent.
[C] cautious.
[D] manipulative.
[E] cowardly.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
48. The first ex-Confederate state to ratify the Fourteenth Amendment and thus be readmitted to the Union under congressional Reconstruction was
[A] Tennessee.
[B] Louisiana.
[C] Arkansas.
[D] Virginia.
[E] West Virginia.
49. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The political career of Abraham Lincoln could best be described as
[A] hurt by his marriage.
[B] hurt by the Kansas-Nebraska Act.
[C] slow to get off the ground.
[D] marred by early political opportunism.
[E] characterized by a rapid rise to power.
50. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As the Civil War began, the South seemed to have the advantage of
[A] a more united public opinion.
[B] more talented military leaders.
[C] superior industrial capabilities.
[D] superior transportation facilities.
[E] greater ability to wage offensive warfare.
51. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The Emancipation Proclamation had the effect of
[A] weakening Confederate morale.
[B] reducing desertions from the Union army.
[C] strengthening the moral cause and diplomatic position of the Union.
[D] increasing popular support for the Republicans in the 1864 election.
[E] quieting public opposition to Lincoln’s war policies.
52. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As leader of the Confederacy, Jefferson Davis
[A] effectively articulated southern ideals.
[B] developed a good relationship with his congress.
[C] defied rather than led public opinion.
[D] was a poor administrator.
[E] enjoyed real personal popularity despite the South’s loss.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
53. As late as 1856, many northerners were still willing to vote Democratic instead of Republican because
[A] the Democrats presented excellent candidates.
[B] many did not want to lose their profitable business connections with the South.
[C] of innate liberalism.
[D] the Democrats were the only national party.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
54. Match each politician below with the Republican political faction with which he was associated.
___ A. Roscoe Conkling
___ B. James Blaine
___ C. Horace Greeley
___ D. Ulysses Grant
1. “Half-Breeds”
2. Stalwarts
3. Regular Republicans
4. Liberal Republicans
[A] A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
[B] A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
[C] A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
[D] A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
[E] A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
55. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
George B. McClellan is best described as
[A] cautious.
[B] disliked by his own men.
[C] not very intelligent.
[D] a great strategist.
[E] aggressive.
56. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
President James Buchanan’s decision on Kansas’s Lecompton Constitution
[A] turned the focus of controversy to Nebraska.
[B] hopelessly divided the Democratic party.
[C] admitted Kansas to the Union as a free state.
[D] admitted Kansas to the Union as a slave state.
[E] reaffirmed the Democratic party as a national party.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
57. One of the key developments enabling the Union to stop the Confederate thrust into the North at Antietam was
[A] the use of the new repeating rifle for the first time.
[B] the death of Stonewall Jackson during the battle.
[C] the Union’s discovery of Robert E. Lee’s battle plans.
[D] Europe’s refusal to help the South before the battle.
[E] Lincoln’s removal of General McClellan from his command.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
58. The North’s “victory” at Antietam allowed President Lincoln to
[A] force the Border States to remain in the Union.
[B] issue the Emancipation Proclamation.
[C] keep General McClellan as commander of the Union forces.
[D] seek military assistance from Great Britain.
[E] suppress Copperhead opposition in the North.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
59. The Union army’s victory in the capture of __________ was probably critical to Lincoln’s reelection in 1864.
[A] Atlanta
[B] Gettysburg
[C] Vicksburg
[D] Antietam
[E] Richmond
60. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Confederate commerce-raiders such as the Alabama
[A] lasted less than a year.
[B] were of little value.
[C] proved effective against Union shipping.
[D] were supplied by the French.
[E] operated mostly off the Atlantic coast.
61. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
When Abraham Lincoln won the 1860 presidential election, people in South Carolina
[A] rejoiced because it gave them an excuse to secede.
[B] vowed to give their loyalty to Stephen Douglas.
[C] were very upset because they would have to secede from the Union.
[D] waited to see how other southern states would act.
[E] none of these.
62. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The greatest weakness of the South during the Civil War was its
[A] slave population.
[B] navy.
[C] political system.
[D] military leadership.
[E] economy.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
63. In “Bleeding Kansas” in the mid-1850s, __________ was/were identified with the proslavery element, and __________ was/were associated with the antislavery free-soilers.
[A] Beecher’s Bibles, border ruffians
[B] the Lecompton Constitution, the New England Immigrant Aid Society
[C] Stephen A. Douglas, William Sumner
[D] John Brown, Preston Brooks
[E] the Pottawatomie massacre, the sack of Lawrence
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
64. The railroad of 1877 started when
[A] the four largest railroads cut salaries by ten percent.
[B] working hours were cut back by the railroad companies.
[C] the railroad workers refused to cross the picket lines of cargo loaders.
[D] President Hayes refused to use troops to keep the trains running.
[E] the railroads tried to hire Chinese workers.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
65. To find effective high-level commanders, the Union
[A] took only top graduates of West Point.
[B] drew on its reserve officer training program.
[C] did not let politics enter the decision-making process.
[D] relied on the advice of foreign experts.
[E] used trial and error.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
66. In President Andrew Johnson’s view, the Freedmen’s Bureau was
[A] a potential source of Republican patronage jobs.
[B] a valuable agency.
[C] an agency that should be killed.
[D] supported by neither Northerners nor Southerners.
[E] acceptable only because it also helped poor whites.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
67. One of the main reasons that the Chinese came to the United States was to
[A] buy their own farms.
[B] work on the East Coast.
[C] dig for gold.
[D] replace the newly freed slaves in the South.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
68. President Ulysses S. Grant was reelected in 1872 because
[A] the Democrats and Liberal Republicans could not decide on a single candidate.
[B] federal troops still controlled the South.
[C] he promised reforms in the political system.
[D] his opponents chose a poor candidate for the presidency.
[E] he pleaded for a clasping of hands across “the bloody chasm” between the North and South.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
69. At the end of Reconstruction, Southern whites disenfranchised African-Americans with
[A] economic intimidation.
[B] grandfather clauses.
[C] literacy requirements.
[D] poll taxes.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
70. The legal codes that established the system of segregation were
[A] called Jim Crow laws.
[B] undermined by the crop lien system.
[C] found only in the North.
[D] overturned by Plessy v. Ferguson.
[E] passed during Reconstruction.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
71. As a result of reading Uncle Tom’s Cabin, many northerners
[A] vowed to halt British and French efforts to help the Confederacy.
[B] swore that they would have nothing to do with the enforcement of the Fugitive Slave Law.
[C] rejected Hinton Helper’s picture of the South and slavery.
[D] found the book’s portrayal of slavery too extreme.
[E] sent guns to antislavery settlers in Kansas (”Beecher’s Bibles”).
72. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The Fourteenth Amendment guaranteed
[A] land for former slaves.
[B] citizenship to freed slaves.
[C] freed slaves the right to vote.
[D] freedom to slaves.
[E] education to former slaves.
73. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Secessionists supported leaving the Union because
[A] they were tired of abolitionist attacks.
[B] they were dismayed by the success of the Republican party.
[C] the political balance seemed to be tipping against them.
[D] they believed that the North would not oppose their departure.
[E] all of these.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
74. Blacks in the South relied on the Union League to
[A] gain admittance to the Union Army.
[B] educate them on their civic duties.
[C] help them escape to the North during the Civil War.
[D] provide them with relief payments until the Freedmen’s Bureau was established.
[E] protect them from the Ku Klux Klan.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
75. The white South viewed the Freedmen’s Bureau as
[A] a meddlesome federal agency that threatened to upset white racial dominance.
CHAPTER 29
Roosevelt and Progressivism, 1901–1912
This chapter is about the new wave of reform efforts—called Progressivism—that swept the country in the early years of the twentieth century. Recalling a similar reform mentality in the 1830s and 1840s, it was aimed at the excesses of monopoly, corruption, and social injustice that were the by-products of industrial growth and urbanization. Progressives were mostly middle class people seeking to reform the capitalist system, not overthrow it. The idea was to make government an active force for good, not just a neutral bystander.
1. Roots of Progressivism (pp. 664–667)
a. On p. 664, the authors say the “battle cry” of the Progressives was to “Strengthen the _________,” not overthrow it. What do they conclude was the “real heart” of the movement?
b. Economist Thorstein ___________ attacked the “conspicuous consumption” of the rich and journalist Jacob A. _________ exposed the sordid lives of urban slum-dwellers. Theodore Roosevelt called these commentators who ruthlessly exposed the system’s excesses “___________________.” They included people like Lincoln _____________, who exposed corruption in the cities; Ida M. _______________, who exposed shady dealings within the Standard Oil Company; and David G. ______________, who pointed out the degree to which big-money interests controlled the Senate.
2. Political Progressivism (pp. 667–669)
a. Read the first paragraph of p. 667 carefully. It describes progressive reformers as feeling themselves “squeezed from above and below.” *** Considering the growing disparities in wealth and power between rich and poor, what pressures were these mostly middle class people feeling “from above”? What danger did they perceive “from below”?
(1) From above:
(2) From below:
b. Politically, reformers sought to take power from the “special interests” and return it to “the people.” Many states today live with “progressive” institutions such as the ______________, which allows citizens to put issues directly on the ballot by petition; the ______________, which allows citizens to vote on measures passed by the legislature; and the ___________, which allows citizens to remove elected officials from office. U.S. senators, who had previously been elected by state ______________, now were subject to direct election by the people as a result of the _____ Amendment passed in 19____. Gradually, progressive state governors such as Robert M. _________ of Wisconsin, Hiram W. ___________ of California, and Charles Evans ________ of New York were able to reduce the power of special interests, turn city government over increasingly to professional managers, and pass laws controlling the excesses of capitalism.
3. Progressive Women (pp. 669–672) Middle class women, though still without the vote and direct political power, became active in the movement for reform, generally focusing on working conditions (particularly after the 1911 fire at the Triangle ____________ Company) and other issues of family concern. As a result, new laws were passed protecting women workers. *** Do you approve of the results of the 1908 Supreme Court case of ___________ v. Oregon? What do you think of the Court’s reasoning that “woman’s peculiar structure” requires special protections (i.e. do you see a conflict between “special protection” and the concept of “equality”)?
(1) Results:
(2) Reasoning:
4. Roosevelt and Reform (pp. 672–676)
a. Roosevelt, though a sturdy friend of business, was swept up in the need for some basic reforms. He called his program the “_________ Deal” and his program centered on the “three Cs”—control of ____________, protection for the ___________, and ______________ of natural resources. Roosevelt’s threat to “call out the troops” during the anthracite _______ strike of 1902 was significant because it was the first time that the federal government had intervened on behalf of ______________ (owners or labor). The section called “Corralling the Corporations” points out that Roosevelt did take on the railroad barons by strengthening the Interstate _____________ Commission and by successfully breaking up the northwestern railroad monopoly called the ___________ Securities Company, headed by moguls J. P. __________ and James J. ________, and by initiating some forty antitrust lawsuits. Did Roosevelt believe that large business combinations were bad by definition? What was his view of the proper relationship between government and business?
(1) Roosevelt’s view of “trusts”:
(2) Government and business view:
b. Roosevelt took action to protect consumers in 1906 through passage of the Meat ___________ Act and the Pure _______ and _______ Act. This resulted directly from an expose of the meat-packing industry called The ______________ written by novelist Upton ______________.
5. Roosevelt and the Environment (pp. 676–681) Roosevelt, and his forestry chief Gifford ________, saw the need both to conserve natural resources for future generations and to develop them. The ___________ Act of 1902, for example, started the massive damming of western rivers and associated irrigation projects. *** After reading the essay about “The Environmentalists” and the summary of Roosevelt’s “conservation” philosophy, how do you compare that philosophy to that of someone such as John Muir, who might be called a true “environmentalist”?
(1) Roosevelt the “conservationist”:
(2) Muir the “environmentalist”:
6. Summing up Roosevelt (pp. 681–683) Note that in the election of 1908, Socialist Eugene Debs polled nearly half a million votes. Socialism was gaining wide popularity in Europe as an alternative to the excesses of free-market capitalism. *** Under socialism, _____________ (government, individuals, or corporations) own(s) the “means of production” (like factories) and _____________ (government, individuals, or corporations) make(s) the key economic decisions about allocation of resources (like who makes how much of what product). The authors sum up Roosevelt on p. 682 by saying that he was “the cowboy who started to tame the bucking bronco of adolescent capitalism, thus ensuring it a long adult life.” *** In your own words, what do you think they mean by this metaphor?
7. The Taft Years, 1909–1913 (pp. 683–686) Taft worked to expand American investments abroad, called “__________ Diplomacy,” and he initiated many antitrust lawsuits, including one against the U.S. _________ Company that infuriated Roosevelt, further splitting the Republicans into the Progressive and “______ Guard” wings. His actions brought Roosevelt back to challenge for the presidency in the election of 19_____.
CHAPTER 29 TERM SHEET
Roosevelt and Progressivism
Pages 664–667
“Progressives”
Henry Demarest Lloyd
Thorstein Veblen
Jacob A. Riis
Theodore Dreiser
Socialists
The “social gospel”
“Muckrakers”
Lincoln Steffens
Ida Tarbell
Thomas W. Lawson
David G. Phillips
Ray Stannard Baker
Pages 667–669
“Initiative”
“Referendum”
“Recall”
“Australian” ballot
Seventeenth Amendment (1913)
City manager system (Galveston, 1901)
Robert M. LaFollette
Hiram Johnson
Charles Evans Hughes
Pages 669–672
Women’s club movement
Florence Kelly (National Consumer’s League)
Muller v. Oregon (1908)
Louis D. Brandeis
Triangle Shirtwaist Company fire (1911)
Frances Willard and WCTU
“Dry” laws
Pages 672–676
“Square Deal”
Coal Strike (1902)
Deparment of Commerce and Labor (1903)
Elkins Act (1903)
Hepburn Act (1906)
Corporate “trusts”
Northern Securities Case (1904)
J. P. Morgan and James J. Hill
Upton Sinclair
Meat Inspection and Pure Food and Drug Acts (1906)
Pages 676–681
“Conservation” movement
Gifford Pinchot
Newlands Act (1902)
John Muir and Hetch Hetchy (1913)
Pages 681–683
Panic of 1907
William Howard Taft
AP Economics Exam: Ch 27,28,29,30,8,9
1. Which of the following statements best illustrates the concept of derived demand?
A) As income goes up the demand for farm products will increase by a smaller relative amount.
B) A decline in the price of margarine will reduce the demand for butter.
C) A decline in the demand for shoes will cause the demand for leather to decline.
D) When the price of gasoline goes up, the demand for motor oil will decline.
2. We say that the demand for labor is a derived demand because:
A) labor is a necessary input in the production of every good or service.
B) we demand the product that labor helps produce rather than labor service per se.
C) the forces of supply and demand do not apply directly to labor markets.
D) labor is hired using the MRP = MRC rule.
3. The demand for a resource depends primarily on:
A) the supply of that resource.
B) the demand for the product or service that it helps produce.
C) the price of that input.
D) the elasticity of supply of substitute inputs.
4. In the United States professional football players earn much higher incomes than professional soccer players. This occurs because:
A) most football players are good soccer players while the reverse is not true.
B) consumers have a greater demand for football games than for soccer games.
C) football and soccer games are highly substitutable products for most consumers.
D) the marginal productivity of soccer players exceeds that of football players.
5. Marginal revenue product measures the:
A) amount by which the extra production of one more worker increases a firm's total revenue.
B) decline in product price that a firm must accept to sell the extra output of one more worker.
C) increase in total resource cost resulting from the hire of one extra unit of a resource.
D) increase in total revenue resulting from the production of one more unit of a product.
6. Marginal product is:
A) the output of the least skilled worker.
B) the amount an additional worker adds to the firm's total output.
C) a worker's output multiplied by the price at which each unit can be sold.
D) the amount any given worker contributes to the firm's total revenue.
7. Assume labor is the only variable input and that an additional input of labor increases total output from 72 to 78 units. If the product sells for $6 per unit in a purely competitive market, the MRP of this additional worker is:
A) $6. B) $12. C) $36. D) $72.
8. A firm will find it profitable to hire workers up to the point at which their:
A) marginal resource cost equals their wage rate. C) MP is equal to their MRP.
B) wage rate equals product price. D) marginal resource cost is equal to their MRP.
Use the following to answer questions 9-14:
Answer the next question(s) on the basis of the following information for Manfred's Shoe Shine Parlor. Assume Manfred hires labor, its only variable input, under purely competitive conditions. Shoe shines are also sold competitively.
Type: T Topic: 2 E: 506 MI: 262
9. Refer to the above data. How many units of output are produced when 2 workers are employed?
A) 4 B) 16 C) 24 D) 10
Type: T Topic: 2 E: 506 MI: 262
10. Refer to the above data. What is the marginal product of the sixth worker?
A) 2 units B) 3 units C) 4 units D) 5 units
Type: T Topic: 2 E: 506-507 MI: 262-263
11. Refer to the above data. At what price does each shoe shine sell?
A) $1 B) $2 C) $3 D) $2.50
Type: T Topic: 2 E: 506-507 MI: 262-263
12. Refer to the above data. If the wage rate is $11, how many workers will Manfred hire to maximize profits?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5
Type: T Topic: 2 E: 507 MI: 263
13. Refer to the above data. If Manfred's only fixed input is capital, the total cost of which is $30, then what will be his economic profit?
A) $62 B) $42 C) $28 D) $32
Type: A Topic: 2 E: 506-507 MI: 262-263
14. Assume that a restaurant is hiring labor in an amount such that the MRC of the last worker is $16 and her MRP is $12. On the basis of this information we can say that:
A) profits will be increased by hiring additional workers.
B) profits will be increased by hiring fewer workers.
C) marginal revenue product must exceed average revenue product.
D) the restaurant is maximizing profits.
Use the following to answer questions 15-22:
Type: G Topic: 3 E: 509 MI: 265
15. Refer to the above graph. An increase in the quantity of labor demanded (as distinct from an increase in demand) is shown by the:
A) shift from labor demand curve D1 to D2. C) move from a to b along labor demand curve D1.
B) shift from labor demand curve D3 to D2. D) move from b to a along labor demand curve D1.
Type: G Topic: 3 E: 509 MI: 265
16. Refer to the above graph. An increase in labor demand (as distinct from an increase in the quantity of labor demanded) is shown by the:
A) shift from labor demand curve D1 to D2. C) move from a to b along labor demand curve D1.
B) shift from labor demand curve D3 to D2. D) move from b to a along labor demand curve D1.
Type: G Topic: 3 E: 509 MI: 265
17. Refer to the above graph. A move from b to a along labor demand curve D1 would result from:
A) a decrease in the price of a substitute resource, assuming that the substitution effect exceeds the output effect.
B) an increase in the wage rate.
C) a decrease in the wage rate.
D) an increase in the demand for the product that this labor is helping to produce.
Type: G Topic: 3 E: 507 MI: 263
18. Refer to the above graph. Each of the three labor demand curves shown slopes downward because of the:
A) law of diminishing marginal utility. C) principal-agent problem.
B) law of increasing opportunity costs. D) law of diminishing returns.
Type: G Topic: 3 E: 509-510 MI: 265-266
19. Refer to the above graph. Other things equal, an increase in labor productivity would cause a(n):
A) move from a to b on D1. C) shift from D3 to D2.
B) shift from D2 to D3. D) move from b to a on D1.
Type: G Topic: 3 E: 510 MI: 266
20. Refer to the above graph. Other things equal, an increase in the price of a complementary resource would cause a(n):
A) move from a to b on D1. C) shift from D3 to D2.
B) shift from D2 to D3. D) move from b to a on D1.
Type: G Topic: 3 E: 510 MI: 266
21. Refer to the above graph. Other things equal, a decrease in the price of a substitute resource would cause a(n):
A) move from a to b on D1.
B) shift from D2 to D3 assuming the output effect exceeds the substitution effect.
C) shift from D3 to D2 assuming the output effect exceeds the substitution effect.
D) move from b to a on D1.
Type: G Topic: 3 E: 510 MI: 266
22. Refer to the above graph. Other things equal, an increase in the price of substitute resource would cause a(n):
A) shift from D2 to D3 assuming the substitution effect exceeds the output effect.
B) move from a to b on D1.
C) move from b to a on D1.
D) shift from D3 to D2 assuming the substitution effect exceeds the output effect.
23. A nation's gross domestic product (GDP):
A) is the dollar value of the total output produced within the borders of the nation.
B) is the dollar value of the total output produced by its citizens, regardless of where they are living.
C) can be found by summing C + In + S + Xn.
D) is always some amount less than its C + Ig + G + Xn.
24. The GDP is the:
A) monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a nation in a particular year.
B) national income minus all nonincome charges against output.
C) monetary value of all economic resources used in producing a year's output.
D) monetary value of all goods and services, final and intermediate, produced in a specific year.
25. Suppose Smith pays $100 to Jones.
A) We can say with certainty that the GDP has increased by $100.
B) We can say with certainty that the GDP has increased, but we cannot determine the amount.
C) We can say with certainty that the nominal GDP has increased, but we can't say whether real GDP has increased or decreased.
D) We need more information to determine whether GDP has changed.
26. Gross domestic product (GDP) measures and reports output:
A) as an index number.
B) in percentage terms.
C) in dollar amounts.
D) in quantities of physical units (for example, pounds, gallons, and bushels).
27. GDP is:
A) the monetary value of all goods and services (final, intermediate, and non-market) produced in a given year.
B) total resource income less taxes, saving, and spending on exports.
C) the economic value of all economic resources used in the production of a year's output.
D) the market value of all final goods and services produced within a nation in a specific year.
28. Final goods and services refer to:
A) goods and services that are unsold and therefore added to inventories.
B) goods and services whose value has been adjusted for changes in the price level.
C) goods and services purchased by ultimate users, rather than for resale or further processing.
D) the excess of U.S. exports over U.S. imports.
29. Which of the following is an intermediate good?
A) the purchase of gasoline for a ski trip to Colorado
B) the purchase of a pizza by a college student.
C) the purchase of baseball uniforms by a professional baseball team.
D) the purchase of jogging shoes by a professor
30. Tom Atoe grows tomatoes for home consumption. This activity is:
A) excluded from GDP in order to avoid double counting.
B) excluded from GDP because an intermediate good is involved.
C) productive but is excluded from GDP because no market transaction occurs.
D) included in GDP because it reflects production.
31. GDP includes:
A) neither intermediate nor final goods. C) intermediate, but not final, goods.
B) both intermediate and final goods. D) final, but not intermediate, goods.
32. GDP can be calculated by summing:
A) consumption, investment, government purchases, exports, and imports.
B) investment, government purchases, consumption, and net exports.
C) consumption, investment, wages, and rents.
D) consumption, investment, government purchases, and imports.
33. Net exports are:
A) that portion of consumption and investment goods sent to other countries.
B) exports plus imports.
C) exports less imports.
D) imports less exports.
34. Economic growth is best defined as an increase in:
A) either real GDP or real GDP per capita. C) total consumption expenditures.
B) nominal GDP. D) wealth in the economy.
35. Which of the following best measures improvements in the standard of living of a nation?
A) growth of nominal GDP C) growth of real GDP per capita
B) growth of real GDP D) growth of national income
36. Growth is advantageous to a nation because it:
A) promotes faster population growth. C) eliminates the economizing problem.
B) lessens the burden of scarcity. D) slows the growth of wants.
37. The industries or sectors of the economy in which output is likely to be most strongly affected by the business cycle are:
A) military goods and capital goods. C) clothing and education.
B) services and nondurable consumer goods. D) capital goods and durable consumer goods.
38. The phase of the business cycle in which real GDP declines is called:
A) the peak. B) a recovery. C) a recession. D) the trough.
39. Market economies have been characterized by:
A) occasional instability of employment and price levels.
B) uninterrupted economic growth.
C) persistent full employment.
D) declining populations.
40. A recession is a period in which:
A) cost-push inflation is present. C) demand-pull inflation is present.
B) nominal domestic output falls. D) real domestic output falls.
41. The main cause of the 2001 recession in the United States was a large decline in:
A) investment spending. B) government spending. C) net exports. D) interest rates.
42. The United States' economy is considered to be at full employment when:
A) 90 percent of the total population is employed.
B) 90 percent of the labor force is employed.
C) about 4-5 percent of the labor force is unemployed.
D) 100 percent of the labor force is employed.
43. The natural rate of unemployment is:
A) higher than the full-employment rate of unemployment.
B) lower than the full-employment rate of unemployment.
C) that rate of unemployment occurring when the economy is at its potential output.
D) found by dividing total unemployment by the size of the labor force.
44. During periods of full employment the:
A) burden of unemployment is quite evenly distributed among males and females, blacks and whites, and young and old workers.
B) unemployment rate for teenagers is below the rate for the labor force as a whole.
C) unemployment rate for women is considerably lower than that for men.
D) unemployment rate for blacks is about twice the rate for whites.
45. Cyclical unemployment results from:
A) a deficiency of aggregate spending.
B) the decreasing relative importance of goods and the increasing relative importance of services in the U.S. economy.
C) the everyday dynamics of a free labor market.
D) technological change.
46. Structural unemployment:
A) is also known as frictional unemployment.
B) is the main component of cyclical unemployment.
C) is said to occur when people are waiting to be called back to previous jobs.
D) may involve a locational mismatch between unemployed workers and job openings.
47. When the U.S. economy has achieved full employment, the unemployment rate is between:
A) 5 and 6 percent. B) 4 and 5 percent. C) 3 and 4 percent. D) 2 and 3 percent.
48. In the depth of the Great Depression, the unemployment rate in the United States was about:
A) 15 percent. B) 33 percent. C) 25 percent. D) 40 percent.
49. Inflation affects:
A) both the level and the distribution of income. C) the distribution, but not the level, of income.
B) neither the level nor the distribution of income. D) the level, but not the distribution, of income.
50. Economic growth is best defined as an increase in:
A) either real GDP or real GDP per capita. C) total consumption expenditures.
B) nominal GDP. D) wealth in the economy.
51. Growth is advantageous to a nation because it:
A) promotes faster population growth. C) eliminates the economizing problem.
B) lessens the burden of scarcity. D) slows the growth of wants.
52. Recurring upswings and downswings in an economy's real GDP over time are called:
A) recessions. B) business cycles. C) output yo-yos. D) total product oscillations.
53. In the United States, business cycles have occurred against a backdrop of a long-run trend of:
A) declining unemployment. C) rising real GDP.
B) stagnant productivity growth. D) rising inflation.
54. In which of the following industries or sectors of the economy is output likely to be most strongly affected by the business cycle?
A) military goods B) capital goods C) textile products D) agricultural commodities
55. During a severe recession, we would expect output to fall the most in:
A) the health-care industry. B) the clothing industry. C) agriculture. D) the construction industry.
****We will answer the graph questions in class*****
CHAPTER 31
The U.S. in World War I
1. U.S. Enters the War (pp. 705–707)
a. Early in 1917, President Wilson pressed for a compromise end to the bloodshed by proposing the concept of “peace without _____________.” However, desperate to use its strongest weapon to best advantage, the Germans declared “unlimited _____________ warfare,” vowing to sink all ships in the war zone. This resulted in the sinking of four unarmed American merchant vessels. Meanwhile, public sentiment was aroused when the _______________ note was intercepted—seemingly an attempt by the Germans to recruit _____________ (a country) as an ally in the event of war with the United States. Wilson finally asked Congress for a declaration of war in April of 19____. It is pretty clear on pages 705–706 that the authors think that Wilson had little choice but to jump into this war. Wilson, they say, “was forced to lead a hesitant and peace-loving nation into war” against “Germany’s warlords.” *** Do you fully buy this interpretation? Do you think that U.S. involvement could reasonably have been avoided? If so, how?
b. Because of America’s traditional hostility toward involvement in Europe’s wars, Wilson played to his own idealistic inclinations by framing the war as a crusade “to make the world safe for ______________” and a “war to end ________.” Americans would be fighting not as just another greedy warmonger, but to help remake a corrupt world and avoid future tragedies. These ideas were formalized in Wilson’s famous ____________ Points Address, in which he spelled out the democratic structure of the new world order he hoped to create. This address ended with the proposal for a new international organization that came to be called the League of ___________. *** In his “Peace Without Victory” speech of January 1917, Wilson had seen the war as a grubby nationalistic conflict that could be settled by a territorial compromise. One year later, in his “Fourteen Points” speech, he saw the war as a moral crusade in which righteousness belonged to only one side. What had changed in the year between January 1917 and January 1918?
c. *** Do you see any connection between Wilson’s widening of the war goals into a moral crusade and Lincoln’s issuance of the Emancipation Proclamation nearly fifty years earlier?
2. The Home Front (pp. 707–715)
a. The U.S. mounted a vast pro-war and anti-German propaganda machine headed by George _________ and his Committee on ____________ Information. With new laws like the _______________ Act of 1917 and the ________________ Act of 1918, free speech and other civil liberties were suspended and antiwar leaders such as Eugene V. ______, the perennial Socialist candidate for president, were put behind bars. *** List one argument in favor of and one argument against the restriction of civil liberties during wartime.
(1) For restrictions:
(2) Against restrictions:
b. The demand for labor during the war buildup brought many southern blacks to northern cities and put large numbers of women to work, eventually prompting Wilson’s reluctant support for women’s suffrage, which was passed in 19____ as the ______ Amendment. Typical of the voluntary nature of the domestic buildup was the call by Food and Drug administrator (and future president) Herbert ____________ to grow “____________ gardens” and make “____________ loans” to the government to finance the war effort. This spirit of self-denial may have aided the eventual passage of Prohibition in 1919 in the form of the _____ Amendment. To raise the needed armies, a draft law was reluctantly passed and ultimately, the size of the army was raised from 200,000 to about _____ million men, and, for the first time, women.
3. Fighting in Europe (pp. 715–718) After the communistic _________________ seized power late in 1917, Russia withdrew from the war, leaving Germany free for a massive push on the _____________ front. Significant American forces did not arrive in Europe until the late spring of 19___, over one year after U.S. entry into the war. Under French Marshall ______ and U.S. Gen. “Black Jack” _______________, American forces had a significant role in only two major battles, but it was the threat of unlimited American reserves that helped influence Germany to surrender on November 11, 19____ (now called Veterans Day). The chart on page 717 shows that about _________ Americans were killed in WW I (about the same as in Vietnam), a number which amounted to only about _____ percent of the total killed by all parties to this most horrific armed conflict to date. The country that incurred the greatest number of casualties was _____________.
4. Versailles Treaty (pp. 718–722) Wilson’s personal venture to the Paris Peace conference in January 19___ shows the disillusionment that often develops when idealism confronts cold power politics. At Versailles, he met with leaders of the victorious powers, including David Lloyd ___________ of Britain and Georges __________________ of France, who were more interested in punishing Germany than in remaking the world. While in Paris, Wilson made few efforts to convert domestic critics of a League of ____________, including Senate Republican leader Henry Cabot _____________. In the end, Wilson lost stature and few were happy with the treaty, which was extremely harsh on Germany (setting the stage for Hitler and World War II) and carried out few of the liberal ideas on self-determination contained in Wilson’s ________________ Points. However, Wilson thought that the centerpiece League of Nations would eventually cure these injustices.
5. Failure to Ratify (pp. 722–725)
a. With Senator ___________ delaying Senate action on the treaty, Wilson took off on a speaking tour that resulted in his incapacitation from a stroke. Lodge then proposed approving the treaty with a series of (just coincidentally) fourteen formal _____________ designed to protect American sovereignty and foreign policy flexibility in the face of a new League of Nations. Wilson twice refused to accept Republican modifications to the treaty. The U.S. therefore never ratified the Treaty and never joined the League. By the time the Republican Warren G. ____________ was elected president in 1920, America had grown tired of Wilson’s internationalism, moralism, and idealism. In one of history’s great ironies, the U.S. never joined the League (and largely doomed it to failure), for which its president had been the primary advocate. In an unusually strong opinion, the authors conclude that the U.S. failure to ratify an admittedly flawed treaty was “tragically shortsighted,” weakening an international structure that might have averted a second world war. *** Do you agree with this? If so, who was primarily responsible for the failure to ratify?
b. *** Can you think of any way that one country could approve a treaty “with reservations” without opening it up to proposed amendments from all other signing countries?
VARYING VIEWPOINTS
Woodrow Wilson: Realist or Idealist
1. The second paragraph of this essay lists three elements of the Wilsonian vision of American foreign policy. *** Pick ONE of these elements and write a short personal opinion as to its desirability and practicality in today’s world.
(1) Isolationism is dead:
(2) U.S. should export its political and economic ideas:
(3) U.S. should push for a cooperative international system (i.e. support U.N., etc.):
2. Paragraphs 3 and 4 present a useful summary of the debate between foreign policy “realists” and “idealists” that continues today. Briefly, what are the essentials of these two viewpoints? *** Into which of these two camps do you think you would be inclined to fall and why?
(1) “Realists” (George Kennan/Henry Kissinger):
(2) “Idealists” (Arthur Link):
(3) Your view:
CHAPTER 31 TERM SHEET
The U.S. in World War I
Pages 705–707
“Peace without victory” (January 1917)
Unlimited submarine warfare (January 1917)
Zimmerman note (March 1917)
Russian Revolution (March 1917)
War declaration (April 1917)
“War to end all wars” / “Make the world safe for democracy”
Sept. 1918 St. Michel salient and Meuse-Argonne offensive
Nov. 1918 Armistice signed (10 million killed; 53,000 are Americans)
CHAPTER 32
The “Roaring Twenties,” 1919–1929
The popular image of the 1920s is of flappers and the Charleston. Indeed, the country changed radically during this decade into one with which we would be much more familiar today—a mass consumption society, strong economy, big time spectator sports and entertainment, fads and superheroes, mobility, suburbs, etc. But notice as you read the chapter how strong the popular resistance was in many quarters to the brave new world thus created. Today’s societal changes provoke similar resistance in many.
1. Prejudice, Immigration, and Anti-Foreignism (pp. 728–732)
a. The authors attribute much of the anti-foreignism of the post–World War I period to disillusionment after Wilson’s idealistic crusade in Europe had resulted in so little. The _____________ Revolution in Russia in 1917 sparked fears that every labor dispute was stirred up by foreign “communists” bent on overthrowing the capitalist system and installing a “dictatorship of the proletariat.” The “______ Scare” of 1919–1920 was led by Attorney General A. Mitchell ___________, who rounded up some ____ thousand suspected subversives on flimsy evidence. (Remember him when we get to the rabid anticommunist of the 1950s, Sen. Joseph McCarthy.) Another example cited is the famous case of Nicola ________ and Bartolomeo _____________, whose Italian origin and anarchist political leanings were at least a contributing factor to their hysterical trial and ultimate execution for murder. *** Why do the authors say on p. 729 that the Red Scare “was a godsend to conservative businesspeople”?
b. In this atmosphere, the once-moribund Ku _______ _________ expanded to some _____ million members and marched openly on Washington, expanding its agenda well beyond its anti-black crusade to oppose anything not purely Anglo-Saxon. The government moved to sharply cut back the “new wave” of immigrants now coming mostly from the poorer regions of southern and eastern Europe. In the ____________ ________ Act of 1921, immigration was restricted through the use of annual quotas related to the national origin of the population as of the 19____ census. Three years later, the _______________ Act of 1924 further reduced unwanted immigrants by pegging the quotas to the census of 18____, when there were far fewer people of eastern and southern European origin. *** Look at the chart on p. 732. How would you describe the change in immigration patterns between 1914 and 1924?
2. Booze and Monkeys (pp. 732–738)
a. The temperance ladies finally got their way and booze was outlawed in 1919 by the ____ Amendment to the Constitution (repealed in 1933). Gangsters such as Chicago’s Al ___________ took advantage of Prohibition to sell “bootleg” liquor. *** Remembering that Wilson wanted to “make the world safe for democracy,” what do the authors mean on p. 752 when they say that this Amendment and its enabling _________________ Act “made the world safe for hypocrisy”? What does “hypocrisy” mean in this context?
b. A high school education was largely mandatory in the 1920s under the progressive theories of Prof. John _________ of Columbia. However, the “fundamentalists” got their day in court when science teacher John _________ was brought to trial in Tennessee for the “crime” of teaching the evolutionary theories of Charles ____________ rather than the biblical interpretation of creation. The old war-horse, William Jennings _________ came in to prosecute the case, but he was bested in the battle by criminal lawyer Clarence ______________ and he died a few days after the trial.
3. Automobile Revolution (pp. 738–742) Just as the railroad was the catalyst for the Gilded Age industrial boom, the automobile was the centerpiece of 1920s prosperity and cultural change, led by the “scientific management” theories of Frederick W. __________ and the assembly line mastery of Henry ________. The chart on p. 740 shows that a Model T cost about _______ months, wages for the average worker in 1924, down sharply from _____ months wages in 1908. (If a schoolteacher now makes $30,000 per year after tax and an average new car costs $20,000, it takes ______ months, salary to pay for a new car today!) The automobile had huge “spin-off effects” on the country.
(1) Advertising—What is the image being portrayed of the Model A in the ad on p. 742?
(2) Name a few non-automotive businesses that benefited from the auto boom.
(3) Name a few social changes that were spurred by the effect of the automobile.
4. Communications and Cultural Revolution (pp. 742–751)
a. As you read these pages about the massive cultural changes in the 1920s, note one or more significant things in the following areas.
(1) Airplane:
(2) Radio:
(3) Movies:
(4) Woman’s role/rights:
(5) Sexual mores/styles:
(6) Music:
(7) African-American culture:
(8) Literature:
b. *** Reflecting on this section, do you have any thoughts on what it would have been like to have been a middle class, urban young person in the 1920s? What would be the pros and cons?
5. Wall Street Boom (pp. 751–752) Wealth accumulation in the 1920s was encouraged by the probusiness policies of people like Secretary of the Treasury Andrew ____________. On the stock exchanges, the authors say that “speculation ran wild” and led to an excessive ___________ (bull or bear) market. *** What do you think the word “speculation” means in this context? Are people still “speculating” in stocks, real estate, or other such investments today?
CHAPTER 32 TERM SHEET
The “Roaring Twenties”
Pages 728–732
Bolshevik Revolution (1917)
Seattle general strike (1919)
“Red Scare” (1919–1920)
A. Mitchell Palmer
Sacco and Vanzetti (1921)
Ku Klux Klan
“New Immigration”
1921 Emergency Quota Act
1924 Immigration Act
Pages 732–738
Eighteenth Amendment (1919)
Volstead Act
“Speakeasies”
Al Capone
Prof. John Dewey
Religious fundamentalists
John Scopes/“monkey trial” (1925)
William Jennings Bryan
Clarence Darrow
Pages 738–742
Bruce Barton
Babe Ruth
Jack Dempsey
Frederick W. Taylor
Henry Ford
Model “T” (“Tin Lizzie”)
Pages 742–751
Wright brothers (1903)
Charles A. Lindbergh (1927)
Guglielmo Marconi
Amos ‘n’ Andy
Thomas A. Edison
D. W. Griffith/Birth of a Nation (1915)
Al Jolson/The Jazz Singer (1927)
Margaret Sanger
“Flappers”
Dr. Sigmund Freud
Jazz
Langston Hughes
Marcus Garvey
H. L. Menken
F. Scott Fitzgerald
Ernest Hemingway
Sinclair Lewis
William Faulkner
Ezra Pound/T. S. Eliot/Robert Frost/e. e. cummings
Eugene O’Neill
Harlem Renaissance
Frank Lloyd Wright
Pages 751–752
“Speculation”
Buying “on margin”
National debt
Andrew W. Mellon
CHAPTER 34
Depression and the New Deal, 1933–1938
1. Introducing FDR (pp. 777–780)
a. You may get confused by all the acts and agencies set up by Franklin Roosevelt in an attempt to deal with the massive Great Depression of the 1930s. In fact, people in the Roosevelt administration didn’t really have a consistent, coherent plan when they started out. Using the FDR quote leading off the chapter on p. 777, summarize in your own words what FDR’s underlying philosophy was when he took office in March 1933.
b. Roosevelt was greatly aided by one of the most active and popular first ladies ever, his wife ______________
(a niece of Theodore Roosevelt). As you read this section about FDR, list a few facts about his background and some of his personal characteristics.
(1) Background:
(2) Personal characteristics:
c. Roosevelt defeated the Republican ______________ by a wide margin in the 1932 election. This election produced what historic shift in the voting patterns of African Americans (p. 797)?
2. Money and Jobs (pp. 780–787)
a. As soon as FDR was inaugurated in March 1933, the Democratic Congress passed a huge mass of New Deal legislation in what became known as the first “_______________ Days.” The new laws dealt with the “Three R’s” of the New Deal program: _______________ (aid to those in immediate and desperate need), ________________ (programs designed to stimulate the economy), and __________________ (efforts to change permanently elements of the economic system that had contributed to the Depression). As you read the remainder of the chapter about New Deal efforts to overcome the Depression, try to classify the major programs (not necessarily all of them) into one of these three categories. Use the charts on pages 781 and 784 if needed. *** Then go back and put an asterisk (*) by those programs that you think are still in effect today.
Relief Recovery Reform
b. Roosevelt’s first act in office was to declare a “banking holiday” as a prelude to reopening the sounder banks with government backing through the Emergency _______________ Relief Act of 1933. Through the __________ - ____________ Banking Reform Act, Congress restructured the financial services industry and established the _________________ ______________ Insurance Corporation, (FDIC) which insures people’s deposits in national banks. *** Looking at the chart on p. 782, what connection do you see between the establishment of the FDIC and the virtual end to bank failures after 1933?
c. Generally, in reasonably good economic times, the unemployment rate is around 4–5 percent of the workforce. When Roosevelt took office the unemployment rate was an unbelievable ______ percent. To help unemployed youth, the _____________ _______________ ________ (CCC) was established. FDR aide Harry _____________ was in charge of other agencies that passed out direct relief payments to people through the Federal Emergency _____________ Administration (FERA) and gave adults jobs on federal projects temporarily through the Civil ____________ Administration (CWA) and later through the much larger and semipermanent Works _____________ Administration (WPA), which built many of the buildings and bridges we’re familiar with today.
d. Who were these three popular “demagogues” who argued against FDR and the New Deal?
(1) Father Charles _______________ of Michigan:
(2) Senator Huey __________ of Louisiana:
(3) Dr. Francis _______________ of California:
e. *** Remember the “trickle down” philosophy of Hoover as reflected in the aid to business given through his Reconstruction Finance Corporation (RFC)? He hoped that business would use government money to build factories, thus creating jobs and helping ordinary people. How do the relief and employment efforts of Roosevelt reflect more of a “bubble up” philosophy as opposed to Hoover’s “trickle down” approach?
3. Laborers and Farmers (pp. 787–790)
a. Roosevelt first tried, ultimately unsuccessfully, to cooperate with business in putting people back to work. The vehicle was the National _________ Administration (NRA), whose symbol, the Blue _________, signified that business and labor in a particular company or industry had agreed on ways to increase employment and wages. The Supreme Court (in the Schecter “sick _________” case) killed this effort, but the authors that say it wasn’t working well anyway because it required too much altruistic self-sacrifice. Note the rather contradictory efforts of the Agricultural ________________ Administration (AAA) to raise farm prices by promoting scarcity (i.e., paying people not to produce) at a time of widespread hunger and unemployment. Drought and dust storms in the southern plains compounded farm problems—the famous ________ Bowl well portrayed in the Steinbeck novel ________ of Wrath. *** As you read about the causes of the Dust Bowl on p. 789, what environmental lessons are contained in this story?
4. Structural Reform (pp. 790–795)
a. Match up the New Deal programs listed below that continue today to be an accepted part of the role of government in the economy and society:
(1) Protects investors in stocks and bonds
against fraud, deception, and manipulation. A. Federal Housing Administration (FHA)
(2) Planned development of a region and entry
by government into the power industry. B. Securities and Exchange Commission
(SEC)
(3) Financial help to home-buyers and builders C. Social Security system
(4) Unemployment insurance/old-age pensions D. Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA)
b. *** Pick ONE of these programs and comment as to why you either agree or disagree that this activity is a legitimate function of the federal government. Program: _______________________
5. New Deal and Labor (pp. 795–797) Remember that the American Federation of Labor (AF of L) was a craft union organization, meaning that it was divided into skilled occupational groups such as carpenters, plumbers, electricians, etc. To expand the labor movement beyond these skill-based groups, in 1935 John L. ____________ started what came to be known as the Congress of ____________________ Organizations (CIO), which included many unskilled workers and was organized by industry rather than craft—steelworkers, auto workers, teamsters, etc. Congress, for the first time, passed legislation supporting unionization in the form of the _______________ Act of 1935 which was to be enforced by a new National ______________ ______________ Board. In 1938, the Fair _____________ _______________ Act was passed and helped set minimum wage and working conditions. Summarize the results of the New Deal’s pro-labor stance as reflected in the chart on p. 797.
6. End of the New Deal (pp. 797–802)
a. In the 1936 election, Roosevelt soundly defeated the Republican nominee, Alfred M. _____________ of _______________. In this election, FDR was able to put together for the Democrats a coalition (or combination of interest groups) that held together surprisingly well until just recently. Besides the “New Immigrants,” the authors say on p. 798 that this coalition was composed of the ________________, the _________________, the _______________, and the _________________. In the first act of his new term, Roosevelt squandered much of his political capital by trying (unsuccessfully) to expand the size and change the composition of the conservative _______________ Court, which had overturned much New Deal legislation. Although he lost this fight, the Court thereafter became less hostile to the New Deal’s “socialistic” legislation. *** What does the chart on p. 800 tell you about the New Deal’s success or lack of success in dealing with the huge unemployment problems of the 1930s?
b. On pp. 800–801, focus on the economic reversals of the late 1930s caused at least partially by a slowdown of New Deal subsidies ordered by Roosevelt when he thought times were improving and he should move to balance the budget by cutting expenses. It’s important to understand the basic theories of British economist John _______________ Keynes, which were introduced at this time and still have influence today. *** Why do you think Keynes would argue that governments should run an intentional deficit (i.e., spend more money than they receive in tax payments) when unemployment is high and the economy is in bad shape? How can a government spend more than it receives? Where does the extra money come from?
(1) Why deficit spending in bad times?
(2) Where does the money come from?
7. New Deal Evaluated (pp. 802–804) The authors summarize well the many criticisms of the New Deal—that it was inefficient, bureaucratic, and inconsistent, and that it introduced big government, a high national debt, and elements of socialism into the American capitalistic system. Perhaps most significant, they point out that the New Deal really never ended the Depression and its high unemployment rates. These were only ended by the huge government spending associated with American entry into __________ _________ ____. And it was the war, not the New Deal, that caused the biggest expansion of the national debt, from $_____ billion in 1939 to $_____ billion in 1945. On balance, the authors seem to _____________ (like or dislike) Roosevelt and his program. On p. 804, they say that FDR was like _____________________ in his espousal of big government, but like ____________________ in his concern for the common man. *** What do they mean, also on p. 804, when they conclude that Roosevelt “may have saved the American system of free enterprise…. He may even have headed off a more radical swing to the left by a mild dose of what was mistakenly condemned as ‘socialism’ ”? Does this argument make sense to you?
8. Varying Viewpoints (p. 805) Against arguments by historians such Carl Degler that the New Deal was a “revolutionary response” to economic depression, or by others such as Barton Bernstein that it was not revolutionary enough, the authors obviously favor the more modern “constraints school” interpretation. *** What does historian William Lauchtenburg, a member of this school, mean when he calls the New Deal a “half-way revolution”?
NEW DEAL—HISTORICAL INTERPRETATIONS
From the Introduction to The New Deal by Anthony J. Badger (1989)
In the postwar years conservatives condemned Roosevelt for introducing socialism; liberals applauded him for extending the responsibility of the federal government to cover the economic security of individual citizens. Most historians identified with the Democratic Party and liberalism and in the 1950s and early 1960s many aspects of the New Deal appealed to
them. . . .
Both conservative critics and liberal defenders of Roosevelt believed that he had instituted a massive break with the past. Radical historians in the 1960s saw the New Deal differently. Acutely conscious of continuing racism and poverty in the 1960s, they believed that the New Deal had merely served to sustain the hegemony of corporate capitalism. . . . The New Deal did not nationalize the banks or discipline American businessmen; rather the corporate leaders themselves drafted the financial and industrial stabilization legislation. . . . Limited concessions, the radicals argued, undercut radicalism’s appeal. . . .
In the 1970s, ideologues of the right challenged the notion that New Deal change had been minimal. Instead, they insisted that the New Deal had set the American political economy decisively and inexorably on the wrong course. . . . Right-wing intellectuals saw the Reagan victory of 1980 as the turning-point when the American people reversed a half century’s drive towards collectivism and chose freedom instead. . . .
My preconceptions and conclusions will soon become clear: that the New Deal did represent a sharp break with the past; that the New Deal’s impact was nevertheless precisely circumscribed, often constrained by forces over which the New Dealers had little control; that in the end the New Deal functioned very much as a ‘holding operation’ for American society; and that for many Americans the decisive change in their experiences came not with the New Deal but with World War II.
Write a paragraph about ONE of the following two questions (the second question being a bit more challenging).
1. What does this summary by Badger of New Deal “historiography” say about the influence of the times in which historians write on their interpretation of past events? If you had to classify the New Deal interpretation of your text authors into one of the categories listed by Badger, what would it be?
2. What is your interpretation of the significance of the New Deal in terms of its break with the past, its effect on the people it was designed to help, and its impact on the future course of history?
CHAPTER 34 TERM SHEET
Depression and the New Deal
Pages 777–780
Franklin D. Roosevelt
Eleanor Roosevelt
New Deal
“Brain Trust”
1932 election
Pages 780–787
Bank “holiday” (March 1933)
The “Hundred Days”
The “3 R’s”
Emergency Banking Relief Act (1933)
“Fireside chats”
Glass-Steagall Banking Reform Act
Federal Deposit Insurance Corp.
Civilian Conservation Corps (CCC)
Federal Emergency Relief Act
Harry L. Hopkins
Agricultural Adjustment Act (AAA)
Home Owners’ Loan Corp. (HOLC)
Civil Works Admin. (CWA)
“Demagogues”
Father Charles Coughlin
Sen. Huey P. Long
Dr. Francis E. Townsend
Works Progress Administration (WPA, 1935)
Pages 787–790
National Recovery Admin. (NRA “Blue Eagle”)
Schecter “sick chicken” decision (1935)
Public Works Admin. (PWA)
Harold L. Ickes
Frances Perkins
Twenty-first Amendment (1933)
Agricultural Adjustment Admin. (AAA)
“Parity prices”
Dust Bowl
Grapes of Wrath
The “Indian New Deal”
Pages 790–795
“Truth in Securities Act”
Securities and Exchange Commission (1934)
Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA)
Federal Housing Administration (FHA)
Social Security Act
Pages 795–797
Wagner Act (1935)
National Labor Relations Board
John L. Lewis
Congress of Industrial Organizations (CIO)
“Sit-down” strike
Fair Labor Standards Act (1938)
Pages 797–802
Alfred M. Landon
Twentieth Amendment (1933)
FDR’s court-packing scheme (1937)
John Maynard Keynes
Hatch Act (1939)
Jan. 1919 Paris Peace Conference opens
June 1919 Treaty of Versailles completed
July 1919 Lodge holds hearings in the Senate regarding ratification
Sept. 1919 Wilson goes to the country; suffers stroke
Nov. 1919 Lodge’s fourteen reservations. Senate defeat of treaty
March 1920 Final defeat of treaty
AP Economics Review Questions
Quiz 1 website:http://www.reffonomics.com/TRB/chapter1/chapter1quiz.htm
Please complete and print quiz: Due 4/27/09.
Please answer the following free response question: Due 4/27/09. Please discuss the following:
The opportunity cost of studying one subject more than another is clearly a lower grade in the foregone time spent studying in the other subject but students may choose to also suggest the loss of grade average and the impact on college acceptance, etc.
AP Economics: Complete Review Quiz at the following site: http://www.reffonomics.com/TRB/chapter1/ppcurve.htm
Print and complete quiz and return to class.
Due wed 4/29.
Please complete this final exam on notebook paper and have it prepared to turn in on 5/21.
AP Economics Final Exam
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Entrepreneurs are
a. lucky.
b. risk-takers.
c. wealthy.
d. college-educated.
____ 2. Of the 25 million businesses in the United States, most
a. employ more than 25 people.
b. consist of one self-employed person.
c. will become corporations.
d. will grow into larger businesses.
____ 3. Which two are correctly paired?
a. business manager, entrepreneur
b. business owner, entrepreneur
c. stockholders, entrepreneur
d. employees, entrepreneur
____ 4. All of the following are advantages of sole proprietorships EXCEPT
a. pay lower taxes.
b. limited life.
c. few government regulations.
d. easy to start.
____ 5. Imagine that you and your friends have formed a partnership where you run the business and bear unlimited liability. Your friends, on the other hand, provide capital with little liability. This arrangement is known as
a. contractual partnership.
b. general partnership.
c. negative liability partnership.
d. limited partnership.
____ 6. A CEO
a. is a stock option proposal.
b. is the person responsible for the management of the business.
c. is a partnership agreement.
d. is the financial officer.
____ 7. A charter is
a. a written application seeking permission from the state to form a corporation.
b. a bus contract.
c. a written statement of the purposes of the corporation.
d. the legal authorization to organize a business as a corporation.
____ 8. Who has the most direct control over publicly traded corporations?
a. stockholders
b. managers
c. labor unions
d. government
____ 9. A consumer cooperative seeks to
a. employ non-union workers.
b. reduce costs for its members.
c. monopolize a service for its members.
d. pay its fair share of federal taxes.
____ 10. The Red Cross, National Education Association, and National Mental Health Association are all examples of
a. S corporations.
b. consumer cooperatives.
c. not-for-profit organizations.
d. producer cooperatives.
____ 11. Which tax is not normally an example of the ability-to-pay tax principle?
a. sales tax
b. income tax
c. property tax
d. luxury tax
____ 12. An example of a progressive tax would be a
a. flat tax.
b. Social Security tax (FICA).
c. federal and state income tax.
d. sales tax.
____ 13. A marginal rate that is high would
a. raise the after-tax income.
b. encourage people to work longer hours.
c. stimulate the stock market.
d. reduce people’s incentive to work.
____ 14. The largest source of revenue for local governments is from
a. property tax.
b. sales tax.
c. state and federal aid.
d. income tax.
____ 15. What recent event(s) has increased government spending on all levels?
a. the presidential election of 2000
b. the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
c. the war in Iraq
d. celebrity criminal trials
____ 16. Our government is
a. a pure democracy.
b. a representative democracy.
c. a direct democracy.
d. capitalistic.
____ 17. Voters adopt a stance of rational ignorance when
a. they vote strictly along party lines.
b. they do not educate themselves on public matters.
c. they vote the wrong way on an issue.
d. they exercise poor judgment.
____ 18. According to the text, taxpayers are coerced in that they
a. exercise choice when funding programs.
b. are forced to pay for programs they do not support.
c. are forced to obey laws they do not support.
d. cannot change things by voting.
____ 19. An economy’s maximum sustained output in the long run is known as its
a. maximum output.
b. resource quotient.
c. potential output.
d. fiscal policy.
____ 20. Classical economists advocate
a. laissez-faire.
b. government intervention.
c. high tariffs.
d. that natural market forces need help.
____ 21. Because of the lag times from recognition to implementation, fiscal policy often takes
a. between 9 and 18 months.
b. between 24 and 36 months.
c. between 36 and 40 months.
d. more than 40 months.
____ 22. A deficit
a. is necessary for government to run effectively.
b. is a way of billing future taxpayers for today’s spending.
c. indicates the government is owed money.
d. is always followed by a balanced budget.
____ 23. President Bush’s tax cuts had what impact on the current deficit?
a. made it larger
b. made it smaller
c. created a balanced budget
d. had no effect
____ 24. What economic thinker developed the idea that it is the responsibility of the government to get the economy moving again after an economic downturn by adjusting spending and taxes?
a. Adam Smith
b. Alexander Hamilton
c. Franklin D. Roosevelt
d. John Maynard Keynes
____ 25. One of the ways the government finances its debt is with the sale of
a. stocks.
b. real estate.
c. stamps.
d. bonds.
____ 26. Anything that serves both as money and as a useful thing is known as
a. salarium money.
b. pecuniary money.
c. commodity money.
d. cash.
____ 27. Ideally money should
a. be non-divisible.
b. fluctuate in value.
c. be plentiful.
d. be durable.
____ 28. Token money
a. represents real money.
b. has value that is higher than its cost to produce.
c. is a stock certificate.
d. is only coins.
____ 29. Money loaned by banks primarily comes from
a. savings deposits.
b. the mint.
c. interest.
d. the government.
____ 30. Approximately what percentage of U.S. dollars in circulation is held overseas?
a. less than 10%
b. less than 25%
c. more than 50%
d. more than 75%
____ 31. A bank account which earns a fixed rate of interest for a specific period of time is called a(n)
a. savings deposit.
b. money deposit.
c. time deposit.
d. M3 deposit.
____ 32. An amount owed is considered a(n)
a. asset.
b. investment.
c. liability.
d. equity.
____ 33. On a balance sheet, assets equal
a. liabilities plus net worth.
b. net worth minus liabilities.
c. liabilities minus net worth.
d. liabilities.
____ 34. In an open-market operation, the Fed purchases bonds from a bank in an effort to increase the money supply. The funds used by the Fed
a. came from savings accounts.
b. came out of air, so to speak.
c. came from tax revenues.
d. came from import duties.
____ 35. What factor reduces the amount of new money that can be created?
a. the money multiplier
b. excess reserves
c. a bank’s liabilities
d. a higher reserve requirement
____ 36. As interest rates decline, the opportunity cost of holding money
a. declines.
b. grows.
c. remains unchanged.
d. becomes zero.
____ 37. In the short run, changes in the money supply
a. cause inflation.
b. mean a lower interest rate.
c. cause changes in the economy through changes in interest rates.
d. cause deflation.
____ 38. Banks lend excess funds to other banks in the
a. Federal Funds Market.
b. Federal Savings Market.
c. Federal Savings and Loan Market.
d. Federal Open Market.
____ 39. An increase in the money supply will
a. increase potential output.
b. not change potential output.
c. decrease potential output.
d. cause potential output to decline in the long run.
____ 40. The Fed’s primary assets are
a. Federal Reserve notes.
b. its buildings and equipment.
c. U.S. government securities.
d. stocks and bonds.
____ 41. To take advantage of a lower opportunity cost to produce certain goods, countries
a. import most goods.
b. specialize.
c. have higher labor costs.
d. must have fertile soil.
____ 42. In order to establish a comparative advantage, a country must have all of the following resources EXCEPT
a. labor.
b. capital.
c. mineral deposits.
d. small population.
____ 43. Why has the dollar been used for many years as an international medium of exchange?
a. There is an unlimited supply of dollars in the world.
b. It has held a relatively steady value over many years.
c. It cannot be counterfeited.
d. It can be traded for gold at the U.S. Treasury.
____ 44. Trade restrictions usually
a. lower tariffs.
b. benefit domestic producers.
c. lower the prime rate.
d. benefit domestic consumers.
____ 45. A quota tends to
a. raise the U.S. price above the world price.
b. benefit consumers.
c. lower the U.S. price below the world price.
d. keep the quality of imports high.
____ 46. Which U.S. agency is responsible for enforcing tariffs, U.S. quotas, or other restrictions imposed on goods arriving to this country?
a. Federal Bureau of Investigation
b. Central Intelligence Agency
c. U.S. Customs Service
d. Immigration and Naturalization Service
____ 47. GATT stands for
a. General Agreement of Taxes and Trade.
b. General Agreement of Tariffs and Taxes.
c. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.
d. General Agreement on Trusts and Trade.
____ 48. An exchange rate refers to
a. the dollar cost of a foreign currency.
b. the cost to exchange goods.
c. the charges applied to a trade imbalance.
d. the value of the U.S. dollar.
____ 49. Why is the dollar accepted as an international medium of exchange?
a. It is plentiful.
b. It is stable.
c. It is recognizable.
d. It cannot be duplicated.
____ 50. Which of the following is an example of a U.S. service import?
a. A Korean family vacations in at Disney World in Orlando, Florida.
b. A U.S. family vacations in Rome, Italy.
c. Data processing for a U.S. company is done by a company in India.
d. A Japanese auto company manufactures automobiles at a plant in Kentucky.
CHAPTER 36
America in World War II, 1941–1945
1. Grand Strategy (pp. 827–828) In the so-called ___________ agreement with Britain, America had agreed to a grand strategy of “getting Germany first.” The authors are effusive in their praise for the wisdom of this strategy, even though it had incurred “much ignorant criticism.” *** If you had been an “ignorant” proponent of a “get Japan first” strategy, what might have been your argument?
2. Japanese Internment (pp. 828–832)
a. In a section called “The Shock of War,” the authors cite the relative lack of ethnic “witch-hunting” in this war. They then devote one paragraph only to the one “painful exception,” the internment of _______________ (a number) Japanese and Japanese-Americans in various isolated camps for the duration of the war. *** What is your reaction to such a drastic deprivation of civil rights to one ethnic group in time of war?
b. Look over the box section on “The Japanese.” Note not only the aspects of racial prejudice against the Japanese, but also that much Japanese emigration at the turn of the century was actively promoted by the Meiji government which “saw overseas Japanese as representatives of their homeland.” *** If you had been an average American of general goodwill on the West Coast in January of 1942, how might you have justified to yourself the sight of Japanese being rounded up and sent to the internment camps?
3. The War Economy (pp. 832–837)
a. With unprecedented national unity about the need to fight this war to the hilt, there was little objection to the heavy hand of government agencies rapidly redirecting the economy away from consumer goods and toward production of war material. The War ________________ Board orchestrated this transformation; rationing of nonessential items controlled consumption; and both prices and wages were controlled by government agencies. Some ______ million men (and a significant number of women) were enlisted into the armed forces, while some _____ million women (dubbed “_________ the Riveters”) replaced men on the factory floor. How do the authors summarize the short- and long-term impact of the war on the role and status of women?
(1) Short-term impact:
(2) Long-term impact:
b. Today, the populations of the northern cities are heavily African-American despite the original concentration of blacks in the rural South. How did World War II and agricultural mechanization after the War contribute to this shift?
4. Financing the War (pp. 837–838) The authors stress again that it was the war, not the New Deal, that blasted the country out of the Depression. Production and profits doubled during the war and pent-up demand for consumer goods caused by rationing and other wartime restrictions exploded after the war. The war, they say, even more than the New Deal, launched the era of big government we are familiar with today. The chart on p. 837 is interesting because it shows the magnitude of the national debt incurred to pay for the war as opposed to the debt people had previously worried about to pay for New Deal programs. This debt amounted to some $______ billion in 1946, which was more than _____ times the level ten years previously in 1936. Total World War II spending amounted to some $_____ billion (which the authors say was ______ times as much as all previous federal spending in the history of the republic!). Even though taxes were raised significantly, a full _____ percent of the war costs was paid with borrowed money. *** Who do you think lent all this money to the government?
5. Pacific Theater of War (pp. 838–841) This short section really can’t do justice to the ferocity of the fighting in the Pacific. After Pearl Harbor and simultaneous Japanese attacks on other South Asia locations, the Japanese tide advanced rapidly, eventually forcing American commander General Douglas ________________ to evacuate the ___________________ (country) in April of 1942. Japanese advances were finally stopped with two huge naval engagements, the battle of the ______________ Sea and the battle for __________________ Island, not too far from Hawaii. Look at the Pacific map on p. 840 and review the strategic options open to American war planners. The grand strategy chosen was that of “island _____________” from the South Pacific island to the next, getting closer and closer to the Japanese home islands. The first victory in this strategy occurred at __________________ in the Solomon Islands, which the Japanese evacuated in February 1943. From there, the names and arrows on the map show how U.S. forces used each new island won (after often horrendous fighting) as a base to launch air attacks further north. Finally, with the capture of ___________ and _____________ islands in the Marianas and the re-capture of the Philippines, it was possible to start long-range bombing of the Japanese mainland. This strategy, though ultimately successful, was extremely bloody and involved ferocious fighting over desolate islands that could be used only as air bases. *** Assume you had been a war planner at the time. Pick one of the alternative strategies listed in the caption on p. 862 (or invent a new one) and make an argument for that alternative strategy.
6. European Theater of War (pp. 841–846)
a. The authors begin by discussing the difficulty of keeping supply lines open to Britain against German U-boats, a campaign aided by the British breaking of the German “________________” codes. They also discuss the success of German Marshal Erwin ________________ in nearly capturing the Suez Canal and the massive German attack on the Soviets, which was finally stopped at ____________________ in the fall of 1942. Remember the temptation of some Western leaders to see the almost equally disliked Russian Communists and German Nazis kill each other off on the Eastern Front? Soviet leader Joseph __________ was fully aware of this temptation and constantly pressured his allies, Britain and the United States, to open a “______________ front” by invading France to help divert German forces from their invasion of Russia. Indeed, the biggest loss of life by far in the war occurred in _________________ (about 20 million people!!). Britain and the United States finally opened their second front not in France, as desired by the Soviets, but in _________ Africa in November of 1942—a campaign headed by U.S. General Dwight D. __________________. Six months later, this campaign was complete. Roosevelt and ________________ then met at __________________ in re-occupied French Morocco and they agreed on the war goal of “_________________ surrender.” *** What are your thoughts on ONE of the two key strategic questions raised here? First, should the Allies have opened a second front by directly attacking through France in 1942 or 1943, as desired by the Russians? Second, were Allied options unnecessarily limited by the call for “unconditional surrender” made at Casablanca?
(1) Second front:
(2) “Unconditional surrender”:
b. At Casablanca, Roosevelt and Churchill determined to pursue the enemy up the Italian peninsula rather than to immediately launch the invasion of France, desired by Russia. The “soft underbelly” proved to be not so soft and the Italian campaign was slow, tough, and bloody. But the Italian capital city of _________ was finally taken on June 4, 1944, just two days before the invasion of France. To plan for the French invasion and Soviet advances from the east, the “Big Three” of Churchill, Roosevelt, and ______________ met together for the first time in the Iranian capital of _______________ in November 1943. After a huge military buildup in Britain, the invasion was finally launched on June 6, 1944 (called “___ Day”), on the French coast at __________________ This invasion was led by American General _________________. After heavy losses, the French capital of ____________ was finally liberated three months later, and Allied forces moved north toward Germany while Russian troops were advancing from the east.
7. Roosevelt and Hitler’s Demise (pp. 846–849) Despite failing health, Roosevelt won a fourth term in November 1944 against the youthful Republican governor of ______ _________, Thomas E. _________________. Roosevelt’s compromise and little-considered vice-presidential running mate was little known Senator Harry S _________________ of ___________________. In late 1944, Hitler determined to make one final effort to reverse German fortunes by launching an offensive aimed at capturing the Belgian port of ______________that came to be known as the Battle of the ___________. American defense of the “bastion of ______________” was key in defeating this thrust. British, American, and Russian forces finally met outside the German capital of ___________ in April 1945, liberating the horrendous Jewish concentration camps along the way. In timing reminiscent of Lincoln’s death at the end of the Civil War, Roosevelt died in early April 1945 and Hitler committed suicide later that month. The Germans finally surrendered on May 7, 1945 (called “_______ Day”).
8. The Atomic Bomb and the Defeat of Japan (pp. 849–853) The War in the Pacific continued for four months longer, and was projected to last into 1946 if a full invasion of the Japanese main islands had been necessary. The authors first recount the massive U.S. firebombing of the Japanese capital city of _____________ in March-1945, which killed ______________ people, perhaps to give you a reference point for the death and destruction caused later by the atomic bombs. U.S. General Douglas ___________________ re-entered the _____________________ (country) in October 1944 and the U.S. Navy ended Japan’s capabilities at sea in the giant clash at ______________ Gulf off the Philippine coast. Two key Japanese-held islands, Iwo _________ and ______________ were taken by mid 1945, at a large cost in casualties, in preparation for what was expected to be a final assault on the Japanese mainland. The authors then discuss the amazingly complex and secretive American development of an atomic bomb, ostensibly in response to work on a similar bomb by the Germans. This bomb was first tested at _________________, New Mexico, in July 1945, the same month that President ______________ met with Stalin at _______________, Germany, where they issued a demand to the Japanese for _________________ surrender. Despite overtures through the Russians that the Japanese might be willing to accept a conditional surrender (the main condition being that they be allowed to retain their emperor as head of state), the atomic bomb was used first against the city of ________________ on August 6, 1945, and then against the city of _________________ three days later, resulting in a total of over ______________ casualties. _______________ entered the war on August 8 and, on August 10, Japan finally surrendered (called “_____ Day”). *** Look over the last three paragraphs of the “Varying Viewpoints” section on p. 855 and write a short paragraph about your reaction to the use of the atomic bomb to end World War II.
9. Overview (pp. 853–854) The concluding section places the _____________ U.S. casualties in the perspective of the larger losses of other countries and points out that the United States was the only combatant to emerge from the war with its domestic economy not only intact but actually strengthened. The authors give good marks to U.S. political and military leaders for their conduct of the war but reserve special praise for what they consider to have been the decisive factor—the “American way of war…more men, more weapons, more machines, more technology, and more money than any enemy could hope to match.” Can you think of a post–World War II conflict, against a much lesser opponent, in which all of these monetary and industrial advantages failed to achieve an American victory?
CHAPTER 36 TERM SHEET
America in World War II
Pages 827–828
ABC-1 Agreement
Pages 828–832
Japanese internment
Korematsu v. United States (1944)
Com. Matthew Perry
Meiji government
Gentleman’s agreement
Issei
Nissei
Pages 832–837
War Production Board
Henry J. Kaiser
Office of Price Administration
Rationing
War Labor Board
WACS and WAVES
“GI”
Braceros
“Rosie the Riveter”
A. Philip Randolph
“Negro march on Washington” (1941)
Fair Employment Practices Commission
Congress of Racial Equality (CORE, 1941)
Pages 837–838
Gross national product
National debt
Pages 838–841
Burma Road
Gen. Jiang Jieshi (Chiang Kai-shek)
Gen. Douglas MacArthur
Bataan Death March (1942)
Battle of the Coral Sea (1942)
Battle of Midway (1942)
Adm. Chester Nimitz
Guadalcanal (1942–1943)
“Island-hopping” strategy
Marianas: Guam and Saipan (1944)
Pages 841–846
“Enigma” codes
Marshal Erwin Rommel
Gen. Bernard Montgomery
El Alamein (1942)
Stalingrad (1942)
The “second front”
North African invasion (1942)
Gen. Dwight Eisenhower
Casablanca Conference (1943)
“Unconditional surrender”
Italian campaign (1943)
Anzio (1944)
Tehran Conference (1943)
D-Day Invasion (1944)
Gen. George S. Patton
Liberation of Paris (1944)
Pages 846–849
Thomas E. Dewey
Harry S Truman
Battle of the Bulge (1945)
Elbe River (1945)
Deaths of Hitler / Roosevelt (April 1945)
German surrender—“V-E Day” (May 1945)
Pages 849–853
Tokyo fire-bombings (March 1945)
Battle of Leyte Gulf (1944)
Adm. William F. “Bull” Halsey
Iwo Jima and Okinawa (1945)
“Kamikazes”
Potsdam Conference (July 1945)
Albert Einstein
Atomic bomb (“Manhattan”) project
Alamogordo test (July 1945)
Hiroshima (August 6, 1945)
Stalin enters war (August 8, 1945)
Nagasaki (August 9, 1945)
Japanese surrender—“V-J Day” (August 14, 1945)
APUSH Final Exam: Due for seniors on 5-20.
Please put answers on notebook paper and bring to class.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
1. One complaint lodged by the U.S. Immigration Commission against Polish immigrants was that
[A] they wrote home with too many negative stories about America.
[B] they were slow to learn English.
[C] they took skilled jobs from Americans.
[D] they sent too much money home.
[E] too many returned to their homeland.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
2. Match each early-twentieth-century muckraker below with the target of his or her exposé.
___ A. David G. Phillips
___ B. Ida Tarbell
___ C. Lincoln Steffens
___ D. Ray Stannard Baker
1. the United States Senate
2. the Standard Oil Company
3. city governments
4. the condition of blacks
[A] A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
[B] A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
[C] A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
[D] A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
[E] A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
3. The central character in Bruce Barton’s The Man Nobody Knows was
[A] Jesus Christ.
[B] Abraham Lincoln.
[C] Babe Ruth.
[D] Henry Ford.
[E] Charles Lindbergh.
4. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
From 1925 to 1940 the transition of American policy on arms sales to 815, warring nations followed this sequence:
[A] lend-lease to cash-and-carry to embargo.
[B] cash-and-carry to lend-lease to embargo.
[C] lend-lease to embargo to cash-and-carry.
[D] embargo to lend-lease to cash-and-carry.
[E] embargo to cash-and-carry to lend-lease.
5. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
President Woodrow Wilson persuaded the American people to enter World War I by
[A] appealing to America’s tradition of intervention in Europe.
[B] promising territorial gains.
[C] declaring that only the navy would be involved in combat.
[D] convincing the public of the need to make the world safe from the German submarine.
[E] pledging to make the war “a war to end all wars” and to make the world safe for democracy.
6. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Population distribution after World War II followed a pattern of
[A] mass migration of blacks from the West to the Midwest.
[B] movement from the Southwest to Appalachia.
[C] movement out of the cities and into small towns.
[D] an urban-suburban segregation of blacks and whites in major cities.
[E] movement into the Northeast and out of the South.
7. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Match each New Deal critic below with the “cause” or slogan that he promoted.
___ A. Father Coughlin
___ B. Huey Long
___ C. Francis Townsend
___ D. Herbert Hoover
1. “social justice”
2. “every man a king”
3. “a holy crusade for liberty”
4. old-age pensions
[A] A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
[B] A-l, B-2, C-4, D-3
[C] A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
[D] A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
[E] A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
8. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
African-Americans did all of the following during World War II except
[A] serve in the Army Air Corps.
[B] move north and west in large numbers.
[C] fight in integrated combat units.
[D] form a militant organization called the Congress of Racial Equality.
[E] rally behind the slogan “Double V” (victory over dictators abroad and racism at home).
9. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As a result of their work supporting the war effort, women
[A] finally received the right to vote.
[B] organized the National Women’s Party.
[C] in large numbers secured a foothold in the work force.
[D] were allowed to join the air force.
[E] all of these.
10. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
NSC-68 called for
[A] a blockade of the China coast and bombing of Manchuria.
[B] the reorganization of the Defense Department.
[C] a massive increase in military spending.
[D] a program of spying on the Soviet Union.
[E] the invasion of North Korea by United Nations troops.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
11. Hitler’s advance in the European theater of war crested in late 1942 at the Battle of __________, after which his fortunes gradually declined.
[A] Stalingrad
[B] Britain
[C] the Bulge
[D] El Alamein
[E] Monte Cassino
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
12. The Reconstruction Finance Corporation was established to
[A] make loans to businesses, banks, and state and local governments.
[B] lend money for federal public works projects.
[C] provide direct economic assistance to labor.
[D] outlaw “yellow dog” (antiunion) contracts.
[E] provide money for construction of dams on the Tennessee River.
13. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Woodrow Wilson was most comfortable surrounded by
[A] political professionals.
[B] academic scholars.
[C] Catholics.
[D] military veterans.
[E] journalists.
14. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Truman’s defenders argue that he exaggerated the Soviet threat because he
[A] had been misled by Richard Nixon and other influential critics.
[B] was pressured to do so by other Democrats.
[C] wanted to win the election in 1948.
[D] feared a revival of isolationism.
[E] received bad intelligence from the CIA.
15. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
While American workers, on the whole, were committed to the war effort, several unions went on strike. The most prominent was the
[A] Industrial Workers of the World.
[B] Teamsters.
[C] Amalgamated Meat Packers.
[D] Longshoremen.
[E] United Mine Workers.
16. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The case of Lochner v. New York represented a setback for progressives and labor advocates because the Supreme Court in its ruling
[A] upheld the constitutionality of a law enabling business to fire labor organizers.
[B] ruled that fire and safety regulations were local and not state or federal concerns.
[C] declared that prohibiting child labor would require a constitutional amendment.
[D] declared a law limiting work to ten hours a day unconstitutional.
[E] declared unconstitutional a law providing special protection for women workers.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
17. President Truman’s Marshall Plan called for
[A] economic aid for Japan.
[B] substantial financial assistance to rebuild Western Europe.
[C] foreign aid for Third World countries to resist communism.
[D] an alliance to contain the Soviet Union.
[E] military aid for Europe.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
18. Soviet specialist George F. Kennan framed a coherent approach for America in the Cold War by advising a policy of
[A] détente.
[B] appeasement.
[C] containment.
[D] limited war.
[E] negotiation.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
19. Franklin Roosevelt’s “managed currency” aimed to
[A] shake up the Federal Reserve Board.
[B] restore confidence in banks.
[C] reduce the price of gold.
[D] stimulate inflation.
[E] reduce the amount of money in circulation.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
20. With the outbreak of World War I in 1914, the great majority of Americans
[A] favored entering the war in support of the Allies.
[B] earnestly hoped to stay out of the war.
[C] had close cultural, linguistic, and economic ties with the Central Powers.
[D] favored U.S. mediation of the conflict.
[E] supported the Central Powers.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
21. Margaret Sanger was most noted for her advocacy of
[A] free love.
[B] woman suffrage.
[C] abortion rights.
[D] the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA).
[E] birth control.
22. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
All of the following were political liabilities for Alfred E. Smith except his
[A] radio speaking skill.
[B] failure to win the support of American labor.
[C] Catholic religion.
[D] big-city background.
[E] support for the repeal of prohibition.
23. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The Marshall Plan finally passed Congress largely because it was perceived there as
[A] inexpensive.
[B] economically beneficial to the United States.
[C] anticommunist.
[D] generous.
[E] unprecedented.
24. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The Bonus Expeditionary Force marched on Washington, D.C., in 1932 to demand
[A] immediate full payment of bonus payments promised to World War I veterans.
[B] housing and health care assistance for veterans.
[C] passage of legislation introducing a lower tariff.
[D] punishment for those who had forced unemployed veterans to leave Washington, D.C.
[E] the removal of American troops from Nicaragua.
25. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Most wartime mobilization agencies relied on __________ to prepare the economy for war.
[A] presidential edict
[B] congressional legislation
[C] voluntary compliance
[D] business trade organizations
[E] court decisions
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
26. The first naval battle in history in which all the fighting was done by carrier-based aircraft was the Battle of
[A] Iwo Jima.
[B] Midway.
[C] Leyte Gulf.
[D] the Coral Sea.
[E] the Java Sea.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
27. The 1928 Kellogg-Briand Pact
[A] established a battleship ratio for the leading naval powers.
[B] outlawed war as a solution to international rivalry.
[C] formally ended World War I for the United States, which had refused to sign the Treaty of Versailles.
[D] condemned Japan for its unprovoked attack on Manchuria.
[E] set a schedule for German payment of war reparations.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
28. A unique feature of the United States armed forces during World War I was
[A] the formation of the Marine Corps.
[B] the entry of women for the first time.
[C] the absence of a draft.
[D] the use of black soldiers in combat.
[E] the formation of a separate air force.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
29. Because of the benefits that it conferred on labor, Samuel Gompers called the __________ “labor’s Magna Charta.”
[A] Clayton Anti-Trust Act
[B] Workmen’s Compensation Act
[C] Underwood Tariff Act
[D] Federal Reserve Act
[E] Sixteenth Amendment
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
30. To regain the power that the people had lost to the “interests,” progressives advocated all of the following except
[A] recall.
[B] referendum.
[C] socialism.
[D] direct election of U.S. senators.
[E] initiative.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
31. The red scare of 1919–1920 was provoked by
[A] the threat created by the Communist Revolution in Russia.
[B] the strict enforcement of prohibition laws.
[C] evolutionary science’s challenge to the biblical story of the Creation.
[D] the public’s association of labor violence with its fear of revolution.
[E] the wartime migration of rural blacks to northern cities.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
32. The movement of tens of thousands of Southern blacks north during WWI resulted in
[A] a new black middle class.
[B] fewer blacks willing to be used as strikebreakers.
[C] better race relations in the South.
[D] racial violence in the North.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
33. Those who protested conscription during World War I did so because
[A] substitutes could be hired to take someone’s place.
[B] they disliked the idea of compelling a person to serve.
[C] women were included in the draft law.
[D] there was racial discrimination in the military.
[E] the law required the registration of sixteen-year-old males.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
34. The real purpose of Teddy Roosevelt’s assault on trusts was to
[A] establish himself as a bigger “trustbuster” than William Howard Taft.
[B] prove that the government, not private business, ruled the country.
[C] fragment big business.
[D] inspire confidence in small business owners.
[E] halt the trend toward combination and integration in business.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
35. The National Recovery Act (NRA) began to fail because
[A] the agency did not have enough power to control business.
[B] it did not provide enough protection for labor to bargain with management.
[C] too few industries joined the agency.
[D] it required too much self-sacrifice on the part of industry, labor, and the public.
[E] Harold Ickes, the head of the agency, blocked its ability to provide maximum relief.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
36. Who was most responsible for the Senate defeat of the Treaty of Versailles?
[A] isolationists
[B] liberals
[C] Woodrow Wilson
[D] Henry Cabot Lodge
[E] Republicans
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
37. During World War I the United States used naval vessels
[A] purchased from Germany.
[B] made from concrete.
[C] from the Civil War era.
[D] none of these.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
38. President Taft’s foreign policy was dubbed
[A] sphere-of-influence diplomacy.
[B] the Open Door policy.
[C] big-stick diplomacy.
[D] dollar diplomacy.
[E] the Good Neighbor policy.
39. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The earliest and most serious failure of the United Nations involved its inability to
[A] preserve peace in places such as Iran.
[B] prevent the Soviet Union from exercising its veto power in the Security Council.
[C] establish a Jewish homeland in Israel.
[D] command widespread support in the United States.
[E] control atomic energy, especially the manufacture of weapons.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
40. As secretary of the treasury, Andrew Mellon placed the tax burden on the
[A] wealthy.
[B] business community.
[C] lower class.
[D] estate taxes.
[E] middle-income groups.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
41. Match each civilian administrator below with the World War I mobilization agency that he directed.
___ A. George Creel
___ B. Herbert Hoover
___ C. Bernard Baruch
___ D. William Howard Taft
1. War Industries Board
2. Committee on Public Information
3. Food Administration
4. National War Labor Board
[A] A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
[B] A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
[C] A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
[D] A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
[E] A-3, B-2, C-l, D-4
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
42. The main problem faced by American manufacturers in the 1920s involved
[A] keeping labor unrest to a minimum.
[B] reducing the level of government involvement in business.
[C] increasing the level of production.
[D] developing a market of people to buy their products.
[E] finding a skilled labor force.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
43. During World War I, the government’s treatment of labor could be best described as
[A] fair.
[B] decent for native Americans but harsh for ethnic groups.
[C] so good the right to form unions was finally granted.
[D] extremely brutal.
[E] strict and financially unrewarding.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
44. As World War I began in Europe, the alliance system placed Germany and Austria-Hungary in the __________, while Russia and France were in the __________.
[A] Allies, Central Powers
[B] Central Powers, Triple Alliance
[C] Central Powers, Holy Alliance
[D] Triple Alliance, Central Powers
[E] Central Powers, Allies
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
45. In 1913, Woodrow Wilson broke with a custom dating back to Jefferson’s day when he
[A] appointed members of his cabinet without regard to their party affiliation.
[B] rode with his defeated predecessor to the inauguration.
[C] endorsed woman suffrage.
[D] personally delivered his presidential address to Congress.
[E] appointed a black man to the Supreme Court.
46. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Match each postwar American program below with its primary purpose.
___ A. Point Four
___ B. NATO
___ C. Truman Doctrine
___ D. Marshall Plan
1. assist communist-threatened Greece and Turkey
2. promote economic recovery of Europe
3. aid underdeveloped nations of Latin America, Asia, and Africa
4. resist Soviet military threat
[A] A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
[B] A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
[C] A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
[D] A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
[E] A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
47. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
With the advent of radio and motion pictures,
[A] the emergence of a working-class political coalition was halted.
[B] much of the rich diversity of immigrant culture was lost.
[C] many people believed that popular tastes were elevated.
[D] American culture became more parochial.
[E] American regional accents disappeared.
48. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
When elected to the presidency in 1928, Herbert Hoover
[A] understood that his major challenge was to find a solution to the Great Depression.
[B] had been a successful governor of California.
[C] was a millionaire.
[D] brought little administrative talent or experience to the job.
[E] was militantly antilabor.
49. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
With the onset of World War I, the United States
[A] conducted an immense amount of trade with the Allies.
[B] did not trade with either alliance, for fear of being forced into war.
[C] banned the trade of military supplies to either side.
[D] found its economy hurt by the conflict.
[E] refused to trade with Germany.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
50. Despite President Warren G. Harding’s policy of isolationism, the United States became involved in the Middle East to
[A] support a homeland for Jews in Israel.
[B] secure oil-drilling concessions for American companies.
[C] stop the Soviet Union from dominating the area.
[D] prevent the League of Nations from establishing British and French protectorates in the region.
[E] curb the rise of Arab nationalism.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
51. Warren G. Harding’s weaknesses as president included all of the following except a(n)
[A] mediocre mind.
[B] administrative weakness.
[C] inability to detect moral weaknesses in his associates.
[D] unwillingness to hurt people’s feelings by saying no.
[E] lack of political experience.
52. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The most pressing problem facing Franklin Roosevelt when he became president was
[A] unemployment.
[B] a chaotic banking situation.
[C] the national debt.
[D] the farm crisis.
[E] the need to silence demagogic rabble-rousers such as Huey Long.
53. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The refusal of FHA administrators to grant home loans to blacks resulted in
[A] a decline in black migration to the cities.
[B] the development of exclusively black suburbs.
[C] driving many blacks into public housing.
[D] the growth of savings and loan institutions exclusively for blacks.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
54. Passage of the Federal Meat Inspection Act was facilitated by the publication of
[A] Jack London’s Call of the Wild.
[B] Jacob Riis’s How the Other Half Lives.
[C] Theodore Dreiser’s The Titan.
[D] Henry Demarest Lloyd’s Wealth Against Commonwealth.
[E] Upton Sinclair’s The Jungle.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
55. Teddy Roosevelt weakened himself politically after his election in 1904 when he
[A] refused to do anything in response to the “Roosevelt Panic.”
[B] announced that he would not be a candidate for a third term as president.
[C] supported the Federal Reserve Act.
[D] got into a quarrel with his popular secretary of war, William Taft.
[E] began to reduce his trust-busting activity.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
56. Theodore Roosevelt is probably most accurately described as
[A] a middle-of-the-road politician.
[B] an ardent defender of American individualism.
[C] a champion “trustbuster.”
[D] a political elitist.
[E] a near-socialist.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
57. In 1912 Woodrow Wilson became the first __________ elected to the presidency since the Civil War.
[A] Presbyterian
[B] southern-born man
[C] non-Civil War veteran
[D] lawyer
[E] Democrat
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
58. America’s major foreign-policy problem in the 1920s was addressed by the Dawes Plan, which
[A] tried to solve the tangle of war-debt and war-reparations payments.
[B] condemned the Japanese aggression against Manchuria.
[C] ended the big-stick policy of armed intervention in Central America and the Caribbean.
[D] established a ratio of allowable naval strength between the United States, Britain, and Japan.
[E] aimed to prevent German re-armament.
III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
59. The tide of Japanese conquest in the Pacific was turned following the Battle of
[A] Bataan and Corregidor.
[B] Midway.
[C] Guadalcanal.
[D] Leyte Gulf.
[E] the Coral Sea.
60. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Before the automobile, the __________ industry dominated the American economy.
[A] farming
[B] oil
[C] steel
[D] electricity
[E] railroad
61. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Which one of the following is least related to the other three?
[A] proposed “Negro March on Washington.”
[B] Smith-Connally Act
[C] A. Philip Randolph
[D] racial discrimination in wartime industry
[E] Fair Employment Practices Commission
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
62. Woodrow Wilson’s attitude toward the masses can best be described as
[A] indifference.
[B] trust in their natural common sense.
[C] open contempt.
[D] public support but private dislike.
[E] faith in them if they were properly educated.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
63. John Dewey can rightly be called the “father of __________.”
[A] evolutionary science
[B] Hegelian philosophy
[C] modern psychoanalysis
[D] progressive education
[E] the research university
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
64. One unusual and significant characteristic of the anthracite coal strike in 1902 was that
[A] the national government did not automatically side with the owners in the dispute.
[B] for a time the mines were seized by the national government and operated by federal troops.
[C] it generated widespread middle-class support.
[D] the coal miners’ union was officially recognized as the legal bargaining agent of the miners.
[E] the owners quickly agreed to negotiate with labor representatives in order to settle their differences peacefully.
65. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
In a sense, Franklin Roosevelt was the “forgotten man” at the Democratic Convention in 1944 because
[A] so much attention was focused on who would gain the vice presidency.
[B] the issue of a fourth term was prominent.
[C] poor health prevented him from taking an active role.
[D] he remained in Washington, D.C., to conduct the war.
[E] Vice President Henry Wallace controlled the convention.
66. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The growth of organized labor in the post-WWII era was slowed by all of the following except
[A] the rapidly growing number of service-sector workers.
[B] the Taft-Hartley Act.
[C] the growing number of part-time workers.
[D] the reduced number of women in the work force.
[E] the failure of Operation Dixie.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
67. In the United States, the most controversial aspect of the Treaty of Versailles was
[A] self-determination.
[B] open diplomacy.
[C] arms limitation.
[D] Article X.
[E] the permanent U.S. alliance with France.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
68. The first Polish immigrants to come to America arrived
[A] in the late nineteenth century.
[B] as Civil War volunteers.
[C] at Jamestown in 1608.
[D] during the Great Depression.
[E] during the Revolutionary War.
69. III. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
By the end of World War II, the heart of the United States’ African-American community had shifted to
[A] the Pacific Northwest.
[B] Midwestern small towns.
[C] southern cities.
[D] northern cities.
[E] Florida and the Carolinas.
70. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The Works Progress Administration (WPA) aimed to do all of the following except
[A] quiet the groundswell of protest produced by Huey Long and Dr. Francis Townsend.
[B] provide handouts to the unemployed.
[C] provide loans and jobs for college students.
[D] provide employment on useful projects.
[E] produce works of art.
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