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APUSH UNIT 2 EXAM
This exam is to be completed out of class and covers chapters 6-12 and all lecture notes and homework questions. Please complete test on notebook paper and be prepared to turn in on 12/1 and 12/2.
1. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
When the Acadians left Canada, they went to
[A] Louisiana.
[B] the French West Indies.
[C] Florida.
[D] Nova Scotia.
[E] France.
2. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
During the War of 1812, the New England states
[A] gave no support to either the Americans or the British.
[B] declared their independence from the United States.
[C] supported the United States¡¦ war effort.
[D] lent more money and sent more food to the British army than to the American army.
[E] allowed their militias to fight wherever the federal government requested.
3. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The antifederalist camp included all of the following groups except
[A] backcountry dwellers.
[B] paper money advocates.
[C] debtors.
[D] states¡¦ rights supporters.
[E] supporters of a strong central authority.
4. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
With Thomas Jefferson¡¦s election as president, the Democratic-Republican party
[A] removed many Federalists from government jobs.
[B] soon resented its leaders¡¦ lavish life-style.
[C] grew stronger and more unified.
[D] grew less unified as the Federalist party began to fade and lose power.
[E] sought to extend the Alien and Sedition Acts to punish their enemies.
5. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
At the time it was issued, the Monroe Doctrine was
[A] opposed by the Whig party.
[B] universally acclaimed in Britain as a great act of statesmanship.
[C] welcomed with relief by European powers who feared British power in the Western Hemisphere.
[D] incapable of being enforced by the United States.
[E] greeted with enthusiasm and gratitude in South America.
6. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
In the peace arrangements that ended the French and Indian War,
[A] England turned Florida over to Spain.
[B] Spain ceded all of Louisiana, including New Orleans, to Britain.
[C] France lost all its valuable sugar islands in the West Indies.
[D] the British got all of Canada except Nova Scotia.
[E] France surrendered all of its territorial claims to North America.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
7. George Washington¡¦s selection to lead the colonial army was
[A] done with no misgivings.
[B] a poor choice.
[C] largely political.
[D] opposed by New Englanders.
[E] based solely on military experience.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
8. John Jay¡¦s 1794 treaty with Britain
[A] created deeper splits between Federalists and Democratic-Republicans.
[B] alienated America from Spain.
[C] increased George Washington¡¦s huge popularity.
[D] provided further evidence of American support for France.
[E] led to the election of Thomas Jefferson.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
9. The ¡§Fighting Quaker¡¨ who cleared most of Georgia and South Carolina was
[A] Benedict Arnold.
[B] Nathanael Greene.
[C] Joseph Brant.
[D] Charles Cornwallis.
[E] Benjamin Smith.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
10. Washington¡¦s Neutrality Proclamation clearly illustrated the truism that
[A] the United States was trying to do what was best for its allies.
[B] he was unprepared for the demands of foreign policy.
[C] self-interest is the basic cement of alliances.
[D] foreign policy should be handled by a group and not by a single individual.
[E] none of these.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
11. One purpose of the Declaration of Independence was to
[A] condemn Parliament for its actions.
[B] warn other nations to stay out of the Revolution.
[C] explain to the rest of the world why the colonies had revolted.
[D] ask for an end to slavery.
[E] appeal for fairer treatment by Parliament.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
12. In the colonial wars before 1754, Americans
[A] rarely involved Indians in the fighting.
[B] received more support from France than Britain.
[C] were not involved in combat.
[D] functioned as a unified fighting force.
[E] demonstrated an astonishing lack of unity.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
13. Match each nation with the correct description of the problem it presented for U.S. foreign relations following the Revolutionary War.
___ A. Britain
___ B. France
___ C. Spain
___ D. Barbary Coast
1. threatened American commerce in the Mediterranean
2. demanded repayment of wartime loans
3. occupied a chain of trading forts in the Old Northwest
4. controlled important trade routes from the interior of North America
[A] A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
[B] A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
[C] A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
[D] A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
[E] A-2, B-2, C-3, D-4
14. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Washington¡¦s Neutrality Proclamation of 1793
[A] had little impact on future American foreign policy.
[B] fulfilled America¡¦s obligations under the Franco-American Treaty.
[C] dealt a severe blow to French military and naval strategists.
[D] was based on calculations of American self-interest.
[E] was opposed by both Alexander Hamilton and Thomas Jefferson.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
15. Shays¡¦s Rebellion was provoked by
[A] fear that the Articles of Confederation had created too strong a national government for the United States.
[B] a quarrel over the boundary between Massachusetts and Vermont.
[C] foreclosures on the mortgages of backcountry farmers.
[D] the government¡¦s failure to pay bonuses to Revolutionary War veterans.
[E] efforts by wealthy merchants to replace the Articles of Confederation with a new constitution.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
16. The debate between the supporters and critics of the Articles of Confederation centered on how to
[A] reconcile states¡¦ rights with strong national government.
[B] transfer territories to equal statehood.
[C] abolish slavery yet preserve national unity.
[D] conduct foreign policy.
[E] balance the power of legislative and executive offices of government.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
17. Arrange the following events in chronological order: (A) Sugar Act, (B) Declaratory Act, (C) Stamp Act, (D) repeal of the Stamp Act.
[A] B, A, C, D
[B] A, B, D, C
[C] C, A, D, B
[D] A, C, D, B
[E] C, B, A, D
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
18. The First Continental Congress
[A] called for a complete boycott of British goods.
[B] adjourned shortly after convening.
[C] made a ringing declaration of America¡¦s independence from Britain.
[D] adopted a moderate proposal for establishing a kind of home rule for the colonies under British direction.
[E] was attended by delegates from each of the thirteen colonies.
19. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Regarding the provisions of the 1783 Treaty of Paris, which formally ended the Revolution,
[A] Spain gained all it wanted.
[B] France was pleased with the results.
[C] America faithfully adhered to each one.
[D] America followed French instructions to the letter.
[E] America broke the assurances regarding treatment of the Loyalists.
20. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The British attack on Baltimore
[A] resulted in another British victory.
[B] resulted in the destruction of many British shops.
[C] produced the ¡§Bladensburg Races.¡¨
[D] made possible the British invasion of Washington, D.C.
[E] inspired the writing of ¡§The Star-Spangled Banner.¡¨
21. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Match each political leader with his positions on public policy in the 1790s.
___ A. Hamilton
___ B. Jefferson
1. privileges for the upper classes
2. pro-British
3. sympathy for the common people
4. potent central government
5. pay off the national debt
6. government support for business
7. pro-French
8. universal education
[A] A-2, 3, 5, 8¡XB-1, 4, 6, 7
[B] A-3, 6, 7, 8¡XB-1, 2, 4, 5
[C] A-1, 5, 6, 7¡XB-2, 3, 4, 8
[D] A-5, 2, 6, 3¡XB-1, 4, 7, 8
[E] A-1, 2, 4, 6¡XB-3, 5, 7, 8
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
22. Many Whigs in Britain hoped for an American victory in the War for Independence because they
[A] were strongly pacifist.
[B] favored French domination of North America.
[C] rejected colonialism.
[D] feared that if George III triumphed, his rule at home might become tyrannical.
[E] opposed the mercantilist system.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
23. Under the Articles of Confederation, the relationship between the thirteen states
[A] convinced many that a stronger central government was needed.
[B] improved to the point of total unity.
[C] was good politically but poor economically.
[D] was good economically but poor politically.
[E] led to a single currency.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
24. Once begun, the War of 1812 was supported strongly by
[A] the West and South.
[B] very few people.
[C] Native Americans.
[D] New England and the seaboard states.
[E] practically all Americans.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
25. Thomas Jefferson¡¦s first major foreign-policy decision was to
[A] purchase Louisiana from France.
[B] drive the British out of the northwest forts.
[C] purchase Florida from Spain.
[D] send a naval squadron to the Mediterranean.
[E] form an alliance with Spain.
26. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
John Marshall uttered his famous legal dictum that ¡§the power to tax involves the power to destroy¡¨ in
[A] Gibbons v. Ogden.
[B] Marbury v. Madison.
[C] Dartmouth College v. Woodward.
[D] McCulloch v. Maryland.
[E] Fletcher v. Peck.
27. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The major issue that delayed ratification of the Articles of Confederation concerned
[A] western lands.
[B] tariff policy.
[C] taxation.
[D] monetary standards.
[E] monetary policy.
28. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
All of the following were part of Alexander Hamilton¡¦s economic program except
[A] paying only domestic debts but not foreign debts.
[B] tariffs.
[C] a national bank.
[D] assumption of state debts by the federal government.
[E] funding the entire national debt at ¡§par.¡¨
29. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
One result of the victories of the American navy was
[A] an increase in British naval operations in Canadian waters.
[B] the final elimination of British raiding parties landing on America¡¦s east coast.
[C] more warships being built.
[D] a British naval blockade of the United States.
[E] the improvement of the American fishing industry.
30. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Thomas Jefferson was elected president by the House of Representatives when
[A] Aaron Burr withdrew from the race.
[B] additional Jeffersonians became members of the House.
[C] Jefferson agreed to appoint John Marshall to the Supreme Court.
[D] a few Federalists refrained from voting.
[E] the electoral college gave up its responsibility.
31. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The federalists believe that the sovereignty of the people resided in which branch of the central government?
[A] executive
[B] legislative
[C] judicial
[D] none of these
[E] all of these
32. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The nullification crisis started by South Carolina over the Tariff of 1828 ended when
[A] Congress passed the compromise Tariff of 1833.
[B] the federal army crushed all resistance.
[C] Andrew Jackson used the court system to force compliance.
[D] South Carolina took over the collection of tariffs.
[E] Congress used the provisions of the Force Bill.
33. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As a result of American opposition to the Townshend Acts,
[A] British officials sent regiments of troops to Boston to restore law and order.
[B] Prime Minister Townshend was forced to resign.
[C] Parliament repealed all of the taxes levied under this legislation.
[D] the port of Boston was closed.
[E] Americans killed several British soldiers in the Boston Massacre.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
34. In late 1776 and early 1777, George Washington helped restore confidence in America¡¦s military by
[A] gaining a pay raise for American troops.
[B] bringing in Alexander Hamilton as his aide.
[C] securing the support of France for the American war effort with a victory in New York City.
[D] providing adequate food and clothing for the soldiers.
[E] defeating the Hessians at Trenton and the British at Princeton.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
35. One of the major criticisms of the Constitution as drafted in Philadelphia was that it
[A] was too long and detailed.
[B] was far too short and required more detail.
[C] failed to guarantee property rights.
[D] failed to provide a mechanism for amendment.
[E] did not provide guarantees for individual rights.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
36. The American colonial exponents of republicanism argued that a just society depends on
[A] the willingness of all citizens to subordinate their private interests to the common good.
[B] support for hierarchical institutions.
[C] a weak army.
[D] a strong aristocratic tradition.
[E] a powerful central government.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
37. After the Revolutionary War, both Britain and Spain
[A] prevented America from exercising effective control over about half of its total territory.
[B] tried to gain control of Florida.
[C] abandoned their fortifications in the Old Northwest.
[D] helped America to fight the pirates in North America.
[E] did their best to win the friendship of America.
VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
38. Post-War of 1812 nationalism could be seen in all of the following except
[A] development of a national literature.
[B] the building of a more handsome national capital.
[C] an expanded army.
[D] the way in which American painters depicted the beauty of American landscapes.
[E] a revival of American religion.
VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
39. John Marshall¡¦s rulings upheld a defense of property rights against public pressure in
[A] Marbury v. Madison.
[B] Fletcher v. Peck.
[C] Gibbons v. Ogden.
[D] Cohens v. Virginia.
[E] McCulloch v. Maryland.
40. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
One of the most farsighted provisions of the Northwest Ordinance of 1787
[A] set aside a section of each township for education.
[B] prohibited slavery in the Old Northwest.
[C] kept power in the national government.
[D] abolished slavery in all of the United States.
[E] none of these.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
41. John Quincy Adams¡¦s weaknesses as president included all of the following except
[A] a deep nationalistic view.
[B] his sarcastic personality.
[C] only one-third of the voters voted for him.
[D] he was tactless.
[E] his firing good office holders to appoint his own people.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
42. The nullification crisis of 1833 resulted in a clear-cut victory for
[A] South Carolina.
[B] the industrialists.
[C] neither Andrew Jackson nor the nullifiers.
[D] states¡¦ rights.
[E] Andrew Jackson and the Union.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
43. While in existence, the second Bank of the United States
[A] limited economic growth by extending public credit.
[B] forced an ever-increasing number of bank failures.
[C] did little to help the economy.
[D] irresponsibly inflated the national currency by issuing federal bank notes.
[E] was the depository of the funds of the national government.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
44. The Declaration of Independence did all of the following except
[A] invoke the natural rights of humankind to justify revolt.
[B] blame the colonies¡¦ problems on the British Parliament.
[C] condemn the abolition of valued laws.
[D] catalog the tyrannical actions of King George III.
[E] argue that royal tyranny justified revolt.
45. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As noted in ¡§Varying Viewpoints,¡¨ historians since the 1960s have interpreted the Revolutionary struggle as
[A] the exportation of European rivalries to North America.
[B] a war of large battles, e.g., Saratoga, Brandywine, and Yorktown.
[C] one in which economic concerns played a crucial role.
[D] a battle between British regulars and the Continental Army.
[E] having little to do with economics.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
46. American diplomats to the peace negotiations in Paris in 1782-1783 were instructed by the Second Continental Congress to
[A] demand British cession of the trans-Allegheny West to the colonies.
[B] accept any British offer that would essentially return British-American relations to their pre-1763 status.
[C] consult with the colonies¡¦ French allies and make no separate peace arrangements with the British.
[D] get the colonies out of their obligations under the Franco-American alliances.
[E] follow the lead of Spain, not France.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
47. Examples of colonial experience with self-governance, which prepared Americans for a republic, included all of the following except
[A] the relative equality of landowning farmers.
[B] New England town meetings.
[C] the absence of a hereditary aristocracy.
[D] committees of correspondence.
[E] militia service.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
48. When the Second Continental Congress met in 1775,
[A] the conservative element was weakened.
[B] its members felt a strong desire for independence.
[C] it resolved to keep fighting in the hope that the British would redress the colonists¡¦ grievances.
[D] it continued to stall on the creation of a navy.
[E] it cut off communications with the British government.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
49. According to the Federalists, the duty of judging the unconstitutionality of legislation passed by Congress lay with
[A] the Supreme Court.
[B] the president.
[C] the people.
[D] state legislatures.
[E] state supreme courts.
50. IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
As a result of General Braddock¡¦s defeat a few miles from Fort Duquesne,
[A] the British controlled the frontier.
[B] General Braddock was forced to leave the military.
[C] the British called off their planned invasion of Canada.
[D] George Washington was left without a military command.
[E] the frontier from Pennsylvania to North Carolina was open to Indian attack.
51. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The resolutions from the Hartford Convention
[A] resulted in the resurgence of states¡¦ rights.
[B] supported use of state militias against the British.
[C] called for the West to join the War of 1812.
[D] helped to cause the death of the Federalist party.
[E] called for southern secession from the union.
52. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Thomas Jefferson¡¦s embargo failed for all of the following reasons except that
[A] he underestimated the determination of the British.
[B] Britain produced a bumper grain crop.
[C] he miscalculated the difficulty of enforcing it.
[D] Latin America opened its ports for commerce.
[E] he underestimated Britain¡¦s dependence on American trade.
53. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
Democratic-Republicans opposed Henry Clay¡¦s American System because
[A] they favored a road system that included Canada.
[B] it would provide stiff competition to the Erie Canal.
[C] it favored only the South.
[D] they believed that it was unconstitutional.
[E] the Bonus Bill of 1817 made it unnecessary.
54. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
For its continued success, Hamilton¡¦s financial program relied heavily on
[A] trade with Britain.
[B] high taxes.
[C] retiring the national debt.
[D] aid from France.
[E] removal of the Spanish from the Mississippi Valley.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
55. Which of the following is a compromise in the Constitution?
[A] direct election of the president
[B] continuation of the foreign slave trade
[C] prohibiting states from abolishing slave trade
[D] counting all slaves in apportioning membership in the House
[E] control of interstate commerce by the national government
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
56. The first law ever passed by Parliament for raising tax revenues in the colonies for the crown was the
[A] Stamp Act.
[B] Quartering Act.
[C] Sugar Act.
[D] Townshend Acts.
[E] Declaratory Act.
57. V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
The chief justice who carried out, more than any other federal official, the ideas of Alexander Hamilton concerning a powerful federal government was
[A] William Marbury.
[B] John Marshall.
[C] James Madison.
[D] John Jay.
[E] Samuel Chase.
58. VI. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
One of the major causes of the panic of 1819 was
[A] bankruptcies.
[B] a drought that resulted in poor agricultural production.
[C] the failure to recharter the Bank of the United States.
[D] deflation.
[E] overspeculation in frontier lands.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
59. Jeffersonians believed in all of the following except
[A] every adult white male¡¦s right to vote.
[B] freedom of speech.
[C] opposition to a national debt.
[D] agriculture as the ideal occupation.
[E] central authority should be kept to a minimum.
V. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
60. In order to purchase New Orleans from France, Thomas Jefferson
[A] threatened to form an alliance with France¡¦s enemy, Spain.
[B] decided to make an alliance with his old enemy, Britain.
[C] was willing to use funds from private individuals if Congress would not authorize enough money for the purchase.
[D] proposed to break away from all alliances to prove our neutrality.
[E] was unwilling to go to war.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
61. One change in colonial policy by the British government that helped precipitate the American Revolution involved
[A] beginning a war with Spain.
[B] removing the majority of the British navy from American waters.
[C] removing British troops from American soil.
[D] compelling the American colonists to shoulder some of the financial costs of the empire.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
62. The early wars between France and Britain in North America were notable for the
[A] large number of troops committed by both sides.
[B] use of primitive guerrilla warfare.
[C] carry over of European tactics to America.
[D] lack of Indian participation.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
63. The disunity that existed in the colonies before the French and Indian War can be attributed to
[A] conflicting religions.
[B] geographical barriers like rivers.
[C] the enormous distances between the colonies.
[D] varied nationalities.
[E] all of these.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
64. The ¡§large-state plan¡¨ put forward in the Constitutional Convention
[A] ultimately provided the framework of the Constitution.
[B] based representation in the House and Senate on population.
[C] favored states such as New Jersey.
[D] was proposed by Patrick Henry.
[E] favored southern states over northern states.
IV. Single-Answer Multiple Choice. Mark the one best answer for each of the following questions.
65. Match each individual with the correct description.
___ A. Samuel Adams
___ B. John Adams
___ C. Crispus Attucks
1. a casualty of the Boston Massacre
2. a foreign volunteer who drilled American troops during the War of Independence
3. a pamphleteer who first organized committees to exchange ideas and information on resisting British policy
4. a Massachusetts politician who opposed the moderates¡¦ solution to the imperial crisis at the First Continental Congress
CHAPTER 14
The National Economy, 1790¡V1860
1. Westward Movement (pp. 287¡V289) At the end of this section, the authors refer to the ¡§heedless exploitation of the West¡¦s natural bounty¡¨ while going on to say that Americans ¡§revered nature and admired its beauty.¡¨ *** Can these two seemingly contradictory statements be reconciled?
2. Immigration and Urbanization (pp. 290¡V297)
a. The population chart on p. 290 shows that, due to a high birth rate and immigration, the country in 1860 was roughly _____ times bigger than it was in 1790. If the population today is about 275 million, it is approximately _____ times bigger than it was in 1860. Also in this first section, the authors describe the squalid conditions in the new booming urban centers. *** Can you think of any similar city in the world today where growth is much too fast for the basic services (¡§infrastructure¡¨) to catch up?
b. Briefly list a few distinctive characteristics of the Irish and the German immigrant groups.
IRISH GERMAN
c. The Protestant majority was concerned about the growing influence of __________________ (a religious denomination), which in the 1840s developed its own separate educational system. The American or ¡§_________-_____________¡¨ Party began about 1849 centered around the concept of anti foreignism. (Note how America¡¦s love/hate attitude toward immigrants constitutes a recurring theme.)
3. Industry and the Factory System (pp. 297¡V304)
a. List two reasons cited by the authors that the Industrial Revolution didn¡¦t hit America until the 1830s and 1840s, much later than it did in Britain.
(1)
(2)
b. What do the authors mean on p. 303 when they say that Eli Whitney gave a boost to slavery ¡§and perhaps made inevitable the Civil War¡¨ but at the same time ¡§helped factories to flourish in the North,¡¨ thus contributing to the ultimate Northern victory?
(1) ¡§¡KCivil War inevitable¡¨
(2) ¡§¡Kultimate Northern victory¡¨
c. What is distinctive about the new ¡§limited liability corporations (p. 304)¡¨? *** Can you guess why this form of business organization was so important to industrialization?
4. Workers and Women (pp. 304¡V309)
a. *** What do you think would be the main differences between working in a craft shop (illustration p. 305) and the more efficient factories illustrated on pp. 307 and 309?
(1) Craft shop:
(2) Factory:
b. Regimented factory jobs, such as those at the first big water-powered textile mill at _________, Mass., were seen by many single girls as a way to escape the farm. Besides factory work, the ¡§caring professions¡¨ open to women included nursing, domestic service, and ______________. Upon marriage, most women left the workforce. How do the authors define the ¡§cult of domesticity (p. 307)¡¨? *** What is your reaction to this view of women¡¦s role in family life?
(1) Definition:
(2) Reaction:
5. Transportation (pp. 309¡V317) (Note: In 1800, the biggest obstacle to national development was that people, goods, and even letters could not move faster than animals could walk, rivers could flow, or the wind could blow. Revolutionary developments, primarily the steamboat and railroad, would change that fast.) The first major wagon road west, the National or _____________ Road, was started in 1811. The revolutionary steamboat, invented by Robert __________ in 1807, allowed people and goods to move upstream as well as down. The first big western canal, the _________ Canal, pushed through in 18____ by Governor DeWitt ___________, benefited its Atlantic terminus at _____ ________ City at the expense of cities like Boston. The first American railroad appeared in 18___ and soon superseded the canal system in terms of importance. Look at the railroad map on p. 313. By 1860, the Midwest was sending its agricultural products and raw materials mostly to the __________ (North or South), enabling that region to specialize in manufacturing and shipping. The South had to continue specializing in its cash crops such as ___________ (its biggest cash crop), which it sent out via its navigable waterways. This new regional specialization will provide a big advantage to the ___________ (North or South) in the eventual Civil War. (Note: Without these new transportation links, the South might have expected closer ties with the Midwest because Midwestern waterways all drain out through New Orleans.)
6. Market Revolution (pp. 317¡V318) In this section, the authors summarize the drastic change from the home as a self-sufficient economic enterprise to the home as a refuge from more specialized, market-oriented work outside. They also point to the growing gulf between rich and poor that caused class warfare in many European countries. What two reasons do they give for the relative absence of class conflict in America, despite these wide disparities between rich and poor?
(1)
1. Part Three Introduction (pp. 348¡V349) This introduction gives you a preview of the authors¡¦ answers to certain key questions about the causes and consequences of the nation¡¦s ¡§awesome trial by fire,¡¨ the Civil War. Look at this section and list three major questions you think the authors will be addressing in the next seven chapters.
(1)
(2)
(3)
2. Southern Economy and Social Structure (pp. 350¡V356)
a. Explain the connection between the invention of the cotton gin by Eli _________ in 17___ and the rapid expansion of short-staple cotton production based on slave labor in the South. If the cotton gin actually made picking seeds from cotton much easier, why did planters perceive a vastly increased need for slave labor?
b. Cotton was king in both the South and in Britain. By 1840, cotton amounted to _____percent of U. S. exports and accounted for more than _____percent of the world¡¦s supply. Britain¡¦s economy was based on cotton textiles, and Britain got _____percent of its fiber supply from the South. (No wonder Southerners thought England would ¡§be tied to them by cotton threads¡¨ in the event of conflict with the North.)
c. List two negatives of this Southern plantation economy mentioned by the authors (pp. 352¡V353).
(1)
(2)
d. Although most slaves were owned by the large-scale planters, most slave-owners held only a few slaves each, and often worked together with them in the fields. The chart on p. 353 shows that, out of about 345,000 slave-owning families, only about ________ families owned fifty or more slaves, representing about ____percent of the total. Fully _____percent of Southern whites owned no slaves at all. List two reasons cited by the authors to explain why many poor whites without slaves remained staunch defenders of the slave system.
(1)
(2)
3. Conditions of Slavery (pp. 356¡V362)
a. If northerners were really against slavery, why do you think they treated individual free blacks with such disdain?
b. With slave importation outlawed since 1808, the slave population grew to a total of __ million by 1860 primarily by natural reproduction. Unlike the North, wealth in the South was not held in monetary form, but rather in the form of land and _________. What did it mean to sell a slave ¡§down the river¡¨? Slaves were being sold from where to where?
c. List two examples of the fact that slaves had absolutely no political or civil rights.
(1)
(2)
d. What do the authors conclude on pp. 360¡V362 about black family and religious life?
e. *** Did anything surprise you about the extent of slave resistance and rebellion (p. 362)?
4. Abolitionism (pp. 362¡V368)
a. The _____________ (a religious sect) were among the first to advocate abolitionism. In the early 1820s, the emphasis was on sending ex-slaves back to Africa, especially to the West African country of ____________. A small minority of fervent abolitionists emerged in the 1830s, encouraged by the freedom given by ___________ (a country) to its West Indian slaves, and by the religious spirit of the Second Great ______________. What is the essential difference between a radical abolitionist, such as William Lloyd ___________, and a more practical or political abolitionist, such as the ex-slave Frederick ___________? *** Had you been against slavery at the time, put an (*) by the approach you would have favored.
(1) Radical:
(2) Political/practical:
b. *** If you had been a moderate Southerner at the time, list two legitimate arguments you might have used against the call of the radical abolitionists for the immediate release of all slaves with no compensation to their owners.
(1)
(2)
c. Look at the cartoon on p. 367. In reaction against increasingly perceived threats to their way of life, Southerners began advancing arguments as to why slavery was a ¡§positive good.¡¨ *** What do you think of the argument that the North was hypocritical because southern slaves had it better than did the ¡§wage slaves¡¨ of the North? Was there any truth in this charge?
d. Were the abolitionists popular or unpopular in the North? Why?
VARYING VIEWPOINTS
Nature of Slavery
Read the Varying Viewpoints essay and address ONE of the following questions:
1. According to historian Eugene Genovese, what motivated southern slave-owners to embrace ¡§a strange form of paternalism¡¨ toward their slaves? *** Do you agree with the authors that this paternalistic attitude had the effect of subverting the ¡§racist underpinnings¡¨ of the slave society?
2. Although economic historians have demonstrated that slavery was still a profitable proposition at the time of the Civil War, it was dying out as an institution in other places around the world. *** Do you have any thoughts as to what would have happened to slavery in America in the absence of a Civil War?
3. Slaves were purposefully kept illiterate and therefore left few written records of their life on the plantations. Technology for audio and video recordings was unavailable and few travelers from the North recorded observations on slave treatment, lifestyle, or culture. *** If you were a historian trying to make conclusions about these subjects, what types of sources would you consult? Do you think an ¡§objective¡¨ picture of southern slavery is possible to construct?
CHAPTER 16 TERM SHEET
The South and Slavery
Pages 350¡V356
Eli Whitney
¡§Cotton Kingdom¡¨
Planter aristocracy
Sir Walter Scott
¡§Poor white trash¡¨/¡§hillbillies¡¨/¡§crackers¡¨
Pages 356¡V362
Free blacks
Sold ¡§down the river¡¨
Harriet Beecher Stowe
Denmark Vesey (1822)
Nat Turner (1831)
Pages 362¡V368
Abolitionism
American Colonization Society (1817)
Liberia (1822)
British emancipation (1833)
Theodore Dwight Weld
Lyman Beecher
William Lloyd Garrison/The Liberator (1831)
American Anti-Slavery Society (1833)
Wendell Phillips
David Walker
Sojourner Truth
Martin Delaney
Frederick Douglass
Rev. Elijah P. Lovejoy (1837)
¡§Free-soilers¡¨
CHAPTER 18
Sectional Struggle, 1848¡V1854
(Note: As you read the next two chapters on the march of events leading to the thoroughly devastating Civil War, think about the question of inevitability. Perhaps draw a timeline of the key events between 1848 and 1861, and try to decide at what point you think an armed conflict between the two regions became inevitable¡Xbeyond which even extraordinary statesmanship could not have healed the wounds.)
1. Slavery in the New Territories (pp. 390¡V396)
a. One proposed solution to the question of whether slavery should be allowed into the new territories acquired from Mexico was called ¡§popular sovereignty.¡¨ What was ¡§popular sovereignty¡¨ and why did it appeal to many moderates?
(1) Popular sovereignty:
(2) Appeal:
b. The authors say that, in 1848, both the Whigs and the Democrats were national parties, providing a ¡§vital bond of national unity.¡¨ The first truly sectional party to appear (¡§foreshadowing the emergence of the Republican Party six years later¡¨) was the Free-________ Party. How did they propose to handle the question of slavery in the territories?
c. In 1848, Whig General Zachery __________, a potential Southern ally, was elected president. Sectional passions were aroused, however, when a gold rush prompted the new territory of _______________ to apply for early admission as a free state in 1849. If accepted, this would upset the delicate North-South sectional balance, then existing of ______ states each. Southerners were concerned about what they called the fugitive slave problem (facilitated by people like Harriet __________ and the ¡§Underground _____________¡¨ to Canada). Does this worry appear to have been a practical one or more a matter of the principle of protecting property rights? Why?
2. Compromise of 1850 (pp. 396¡V401)
a. In the momentous debate sparked by California¡¦s request for statehood, summarize the positions and critical roles played by the following three Old Guard politicians in putting together the Compromise of 1850.
(1) Henry Clay:
(2) John C. Calhoun:
(3) Daniel Webster (¡§7th of March Speech¡¨):
b. The Compromise of 1850 achieved some Northern objectives by admitting _____________ as a free state, taking away some disputed territory from the slave-holding state of ____________, and abolishing the slave trade (although not slavery per se) in _____________ D.C. In return, the main concession to the South was the tightening up of the ____________ Slave Law. Why do the authors conclude that the North ¡§got the better deal¡¨ and that emphasizing fugitive slaves was ¡§an appalling blunder on the part of the South¡¨?
3. Expansionism in the 1850s (pp. 401¡V404)
a. In 1852, the Democrat and ¡§pro-southern northerner¡¨ Franklin __________ won the presidency. Why, on p. 401, do the authors conclude that this election was ¡§fraught with frightening significance¡¨?
b. Expansionists, especially in the South, had a field day in the early 1850s. Note the adventures of William _________ in Nicaragua and the resolution of disputes with Britain over a potential canal route across the Isthmus of Panama in the Clayton-_________ Treaty of 1850. A fleet under Commodore Matthew _________ helped open ________ to trade ties in 1854. And plans to grab _______ from Spain were foiled when the __________ Manifesto became public in 1854.
4. Douglas and the Kansas-Nebraska Act, 1854 (pp. 404¡V408)
a. The issue of a railroad to the Pacific precipitated a major sectional split in 1853 when the ___________ Purchase of territory from __________ seemed to favor the technically easier southern route. Motivated by a desire to benefit both his region and himself, Illinois Senator Stephen A. _____________ countered in 1854 with a northern route proposal that would require the area west of the Missouri River to be formally organized into a territory. His proposal was to split this territory into two parts, with the status of slavery to be decided on the principle of ¡§_____________ sovereignty.¡¨ The northern territory, to be called _____________, would presumably vote for ¡§free-soil,¡¨ while the southern territory, to be called _____________, was expected to favor slavery. Despite opposing a northern railroad route, why did the South ¡§rise to the bait¡¨ (p. 406) and support this act?
b. The authors obviously consider pushing the Kansas-Nebraska Act to have been a major blunder on the part of Douglas, making the ¡§dreaded sectional rift¡¨ permanently irreversible. The act he pushed through in 1854 required repeal of the _____________ Compromise of 1820, which had prohibited slavery in any territories formed from the ____________ Purchase north of the southern boundary of Missouri (latitude 36„a 30'). Why did Northern free-soilers, soon to form the purely-sectional ____________ Party around this very issue, so vehemently oppose the bill, even though it would promote a railroad that would benefit their region economically?
TIMELINE TO CIVIL WAR
Refer to the note at the beginning of these questions. Draw a timeline of the key events between 1848 and 1861 and try to decide at what point you think an armed conflict between the two regions became inevitable¡Xbeyond which even extraordinary statesmanship could not have healed the wounds.
1844
1845
1846
1847
1848
1849
1850
1851
1852
1853
1854
1855
1856
1857
1858
1859
1860
1861
CHAPTER 18 TERM SHEET
Sectional Struggle
Pages 390¡V396
1848 election
Gen. Lewis Cass (Dem.)
Gen. Zachery Taylor (Whig)
¡§Popular sovereignty¡¨
¡§Free-Soil¡¨ Party
Martin Van Buren
California gold rush (1848)
California admission application (1849)
Underground Railroad
Harriet Tubman
Fugitive slave laws
Pages 396¡V401
Henry Clay
John C. Calhoun
Daniel Webster
Seventh of March Speech (1850)
William H. Seward
Millard Fillmore (1850)
Compromise of 1850
Pages 401¡V404
Election of 1852
Franklin Pierce (Dem.)
Gen. Winfield Scott (Whig)
Whig Party demise (1852)
William Walker
Clayton-Bulwer Treaty (1850)
Com. Matthew C. Perry (Japan, 1854)
Ostend Manifesto (1854)
Pages 404¡V408
Pacific railroad route
Jefferson Davis
Gadsden Purchase (1853)
Sen. Stephen A. Douglas
Kansas-Nebraska Act (1854)
Missouri Compromise of 1820
Republican Party (1854)
AP Economics Test : Chapter 20-25
1. The income effect indicates that:
A) a rise in money income will cause consumers to buy smaller quantities of normal goods.
B) when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product now that it is relatively cheaper.
C) consumers should substitute among various products until the marginal utility from the last unit of each product purchased is the same.
D) when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific money income.
2. If the price of normal good X rises, the income:
A) and substitution effects will both induce the consumer to buy less of X.
B) and substitution effects will both induce the consumer to buy more of X.
C) effect will induce the consumer to buy more of X and the substitution effect will induce him to buy less.
D) effect will induce the consumer to buy less of X and the substitution will induce him to buy more.
3. If the price of a product falls, that product becomes cheaper and people will want to purchase more of it in place of other goods. This statement best describes:
A) the income effect. B) the substitution effect. C) a complementary good. D) an inferior good.
4. A fall in the price of a good increases the real income or purchasing power of consumers so that they are able to buy more of the product. This statement best describes:
A) the income effect. B) a complementary good. C) the substitution effect. D) an inferior good.
5. The substitution effect indicates that:
A) a decline in money income will cause the consumer to buy more inferior goods and fewer superior goods.
B) consumer equilibrium can only be achieved when the consumer is buying substitute goods.
C) when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product at the expense of other products.
D) when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific money income.
6. The substitution effect causes a consumer to buy less of a product when its price rises because the:
A) consumer's real income has decreased.
B) consumer's real income has increased.
C) product is now less expensive compared to other products.
D) product is now more expensive compared to other products.
7. Utility:
A) is synonymous with usefulness. C) is easy to quantify.
B) is want-satisfying power. D) rarely varies from person to person.
8. The ability of a good or service to satisfy wants is called:
A) utility maximization. B) opportunity cost. C) revenue potential. D) utility.
9. The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:
A) total utility is maximized when consumers obtain the same amount of utility per unit of each product consumed.
B) beyond some point additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.
C) price must be lowered to induce firms to supply more of a product.
D) it will take larger and larger amounts of resources beyond some point to produce successive units of a product.
10. Total utility may be determined by:
A) multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
B) summing the marginal utilities of each unit consumed.
C) multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by product price.
D) multiplying the marginal utility of the first unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
11. The theory of consumer behavior assumes that :
A) consumers behave rationally, maximizing their satisfactions.
B) consumers have unlimited money incomes.
C) consumers do not know how much marginal utility they obtain from succesive units of various products.
D) marginal utility is constant.
12. To maximize utility a consumer should allocate money income so that the:
A) elasticity of demand on all products purchased is the same.
B) marginal utility obtained from the last dollar spent on each product is the same.
C) total utility derived from each product consumed is the same.
D) marginal utility of the last unit of each product consumed is the same.
13. Mrs. Green is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
A) the two commodities are substitute goods.
B) Mrs. Green should spend more on pretzels and less on soda.
C) Mrs. Green should spend more on soda and less on pretzels.
D) Mrs. Green is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts.
14. A consumer who has a limited budget will maximize utility or satisfaction when the:
A) ratios of the marginal utility of each product purchased divided by its price are equal.
B) total utility derived from each product purchased is the same.
C) marginal utility of each product purchased is the same.
D) price of each product purchased is the same.
15. Suppose that Dave normally orders two tacos, but on seeing they are on sale, decides to buy three. Dave's decision is best explained by the:
A) law of increasing opportunity costs. C) principle of comparative advantage.
B) law of supply. D) the principle of utility maximization.
16. Diminishing marginal utility explains why:
A) the income effect exceeds the substitution effect.
B) the substitution effect exceeds the income effect.
C) supply curves are upsloping.
D) demand curves are downsloping.
17. A consumer's demand curve for a product is downsloping because:
A) total utility falls below marginal utility as more of a product is consumed.
B) marginal utility diminishes as more of a product is consumed.
C) time becomes less valuable as more of a product is consumed.
D) the income and substitution effects precisely offset each other.
18. Which of the following has been a significant factor in DVDs replacing video cassettes (VCs) in the retail home video market?
A) DVDs are now less than one-half the price of VCs.
B) A scarcity of production capacity has curtailed the manufacture of VCs.
C) Most consumers perceive DVD sound and video reproduction to be of higher quality.
D) The price of DVD players has increased dramatically.
19. Consumer demand for DVDs has increased over time because the price of DVD players has:
A) decreased, and DVD players and video cassette players are substitute goods.
B) decreased, and DVD players and video cassette players are complementary goods.
C) increased, and DVD players and video cassette players are substitute goods.
D) increased, and DVD players and video cassette players are complementary goods.
20. "Essential" water is cheaper than "nonessential" diamonds because:
A) new industrial uses for diamonds have been discovered.
B) the supply of water is great relative to demand and the supply of diamonds is small relative to demand.
C) although the total utility of diamonds is greater, their marginal utility is small.
D) the supply of diamonds is great relative to demand and the supply of water is small relative to demand.
21. The income effect indicates that:
A) a rise in money income will cause consumers to buy smaller quantities of normal goods.
B) when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product now that it is relatively cheaper.
C) consumers should substitute among various products until the marginal utility from the last unit of each product purchased is the same.
D) when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific money income.
22. If the price of a product falls, that product becomes cheaper and people will want to purchase more of it in place of other goods. This statement best describes:
A) the income effect. B) the substitution effect. C) a complementary good. D) an inferior good.
23. A fall in the price of a good increases the real income or purchasing power of consumers so that they are able to buy more of the product. This statement best describes:
A) the income effect. B) a complementary good. C) the substitution effect. D) an inferior good.
24. If steak is a normal good and its price rises:
A) the amount purchased may either increase or decrease depending on the relative importance of the income and substitution effects.
B) both the income and substitution effects suggest that less will be purchased.
C) the substitution effect suggests more will be purchased, but the income effect suggests less will be purchased.
D) the income effect suggests more will be purchased, but the substitution effect suggests less will be purchased.
25. The substitution effect indicates that:
A) a decline in money income will cause the consumer to buy more inferior goods and fewer superior goods.
B) consumer equilibrium can only be achieved when the consumer is buying substitute goods.
C) when the price of a product falls, the lower price will induce the consumer to buy more of that product at the expense of other products.
D) when the price of a product falls, a consumer will be able to buy more of it with a specific money income.
26. The substitution effect causes a consumer to buy less of a product when its price rises because the:
A) consumer's real income has decreased.
B) consumer's real income has increased.
C) product is now less expensive compared to other products.
D) product is now more expensive compared to other products.
27. Utility:
A) is synonymous with usefulness. C) is easy to quantify.
B) is want-satisfying power. D) rarely varies from person to person.
28. The ability of a good or service to satisfy wants is called:
A) utility maximization. B) opportunity cost. C) revenue potential. D) utility.
29. A product has utility if it:
A) takes more and more resources to produce successive units of it.
B) violates the law of demand.
C) satisfies consumer wants.
D) is useful.
30. The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:
A) total utility is maximized when consumers obtain the same amount of utility per unit of each product consumed.
B) beyond some point additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.
C) price must be lowered to induce firms to supply more of a product.
D) it will take larger and larger amounts of resources beyond some point to produce successive units of a product.
31. The first Pepsi yields Craig 18 units of utility and the second yields him an additional 12 units of utility. His total utility from three Pepsis is 38 units of utility. The marginal utility of the third Pepsi is:
A) 26 units of utility. B) 6 units of utility. C) 8 units of utility. D) 38 units of utility.
32. Marginal utility is the:
A) sensitivity of consumer purchases of a good to changes in the price of that good.
B) change in total utility obtained by consuming one more unit of a good.
C) change in total utility obtained by consuming another unit of a good divided by the change in the price of that good.
D) total utility associated with the consumption of a certain number of units of a good divided by the number of units consumed.
33. Total utility may be determined by:
A) multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
B) summing the marginal utilities of each unit consumed.
C) multiplying the marginal utility of the last unit consumed by product price.
D) multiplying the marginal utility of the first unit consumed by the number of units consumed.
34. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Utility and usefulness are synonymous.
B) The marginal utility derived from successive units of a product tends to be similar for all consumers.
C) Because utility is not measurable, the utility-maximizing rule provides no useful insights as to consumer behavior.
D) A product may yield utility, but not be functionally useful.
35. Mrs. Green is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
A) the two commodities are substitute goods.
B) Mrs. Green should spend more on pretzels and less on soda.
C) Mrs. Green should spend more on soda and less on pretzels.
D) Mrs. Green is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts.
36. When a consumer is maximizing total utility,
A) the average utility from each dollar spent is the same.
B) total utility cannot be increased by reallocating expenditures among various products.
C) the total utility obtainable from each product is at a maximum.
D) the marginal utility of the last unit of each product purchased is zero.
37. Diminishing marginal utility explains why:
A) the income effect exceeds the substitution effect.
B) the substitution effect exceeds the income effect.
C) supply curves are upsloping.
D) demand curves are downsloping.
38. A consumer's demand curve for a product is downsloping because:
A) total utility falls below marginal utility as more of a product is consumed.
B) marginal utility diminishes as more of a product is consumed.
C) time becomes less valuable as more of a product is consumed.
D) the income and substitution effects precisely offset each other.
39. The utility-maximizing rule:
A) is inconsistent with the law of demand. C) implies a leftward shifting demand curve.
B) implies a perfectly elastic demand curve. D) is consistent with the law of demand.
40. The long run is characterized by:
A) the relevance of the law of diminishing returns.
B) at least one fixed input.
C) insufficient time for firms to enter or leave the industry.
D) the ability of the firm to change its plant size.
41. Marginal product is:
A) the increase in total output attributable to the employment of one more worker.
B) the increase in total revenue attributable to the employment of one more worker.
C) the increase in total cost attributable to the employment of one more worker.
D) total product divided by the number of workers employed.
42. The law of diminishing returns indicates that:
A) as extra units of a variable resource are added to a fixed resource, marginal product will decline beyond some point.
B) because of economies and diseconomies of scale a competitive firm's long-run average total cost curve will be U-shaped.
C) the demand for goods produced by purely competitive industries is downsloping.
D) beyond some point the extra utility derived from additional units of a product will yield the consumer smaller and smaller extra amounts of satisfaction.
43. Which of the following is correct?
A) When total product is rising, both average product and marginal product must also be rising.
B) When marginal product is falling, total product must be falling.
C) When marginal product is falling, average product must also be falling.
D) Marginal product rises faster than average product and also falls faster than average product.
44. Which of the following is not correct?
A) Where marginal product is greater than average product, average product is rising.
B) Where total product is at a maximum, average product is also at a maximum.
C) Where marginal product is zero, total product is at a maximum.
D) Marginal product becomes negative before average product becomes negative.
45. Fixed cost is:
A) the cost of producing one more unit of capital, say, machinery.
B) any cost which does not change when the firm changes its output.
C) average cost multiplied by the firm's output.
D) usually zero in the short run
46. Which of the following is most likely to be a fixed cost?
A) shipping charges C) wages for unskilled labor
B) property insurance premiums D) expenditures for raw materials
47. Which of the following is most likely to be a variable cost?
A) fuel and power payments C) rental payments on IBM equipment
B) interest on business loans. D) real estate taxes
48. Average fixed cost:
A) equals marginal cost when average total cost is at its minimum.
B) may be found for any output by adding average variable cost and average total cost.
C) graphs as a U-shaped curve.
D) declines continually as output increases.
49. When average fixed costs are falling:
A) average total cost must be falling.
B) average variable cost may be either rising or falling.
C) marginal cost must be falling.
D) average variable costs must be rising.
50. Assume that in the short run a firm is producing 100 units of output, has average total costs of $200, and average variable costs of $150. The firm's total fixed costs are:
A) $5,000. B) $500. C) $.50. D) $50.
51. Other things equal, if the fixed costs of a firm were to increase by $100,000 per year, which of the following would happen?
A) Marginal costs and average variable costs would both rise.
B) Average fixed costs and average variable costs would rise.
C) Average fixed costs and average total costs would rise.
D) Average fixed costs would rise, but marginal costs would fall.
52. Economists would describe the U.S. automobile industry as:
A) purely competitive. B) an oligopoly. C) monopolistically competitive. D) a pure monopoly.
53. Which of the following industries most closely approximates pure competition?
A) agriculture B) farm implements C) clothing D) steel
54. Economists use the term imperfect competition to describe:
A) all industries which produce standardized products.
B) any industry in which there is no nonprice competition.
C) a pure monopoly only.
D) those markets which are not purely competitive.
55 .In which of the following industry structures is the entry of new firms the most difficult?
A) pure monopoly B) oligopoly C) monopolistic competition D) pure competition
56. An industry comprised of 40 firms, none of which has more than 3 percent of the total market for a differentiated product is an example of:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
57. A one-firm industry is known as:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
58. An industry comprised of four firms, each with about 25 percent of the total market for a product is an example of:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
59. An industry comprised of a very large number of sellers producing a standardized product is known as:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
60. An industry comprised of a small number of firms, each of which considers the potential reactions of its rivals in making price-output decisions is called:
A) monopolistic competition B) oligopoly C) pure monopoly D) pure competition
61. Which of the following statements applies to a purely competitive producer?
A) It will not advertise its product.
B) In long-run equilibrium it will earn an economic profit.
C) Its product will have a brand name.
D) Its product is slightly different from those of its competitors.
62. A purely competitive seller is:
A) both a "price maker" and a "price taker." C) a "price taker."
B) neither a "price maker" nor a "price taker." D) a "price maker."
63. Which of the following is not characteristic of pure competition?
A) price strategies by firms C) no barriers to entry
B) a standardized product D) a larger number of sellers
64. The demand schedule or curve confronted by the individual purely competitive firm is:
A) relatively elastic, that is, the elasticity coefficient is greater than unity.
B) perfectly elastic.
C) relatively inelastic, that is, the elasticity coefficient is less than unity.
D) perfectly inelastic.
65. Which of the following is characteristic of a purely competitive seller's demand curve?
A) Price and marginal revenue are equal at all levels of output.
B) Average revenue is less than price.
C) Its elasticity coefficient is 1 at all levels of output.
D) It is the same as the market demand curve.
66. Marginal revenue is the:
A) change in product price associated with the sale of one more unit of output.
B) change in average revenue associated with the sale of one more unit of output.
C) difference between product price and average total cost.
D) change in total revenue associated with the sale of one more unit of output.
67. Firms seek to maximize:
A) per unit profit. B) total revenue. C) total profit. D) market share.
68. The MR = MC rule can be restated for a purely competitive seller as P = MC because:
A) each additional unit of output adds exactly its price to total revenue.
B) the firm's average revenue curve is downsloping.
C) the market demand curve is downsloping.
D) the firm's marginal revenue and total revenue curves will coincide.
69. Pure monopoly means:
A) any market in which the demand curve to the firm is downsloping.
B) a standardized product being produced by many firms.
C) a single firm producing a product for which there are no close substitutes.
D) a large number of firms producing a differentiated product.
70. Which of the following is correct?
A) Both purely competitive and monopolistic firms are "price takers."
B) Both purely competitive and monopolistic firms are "price makers."
C) A purely competitive firm is a "price taker," while a monopolist is a "price maker."
D) A purely competitive firm is a "price maker," while a monopolist is a "price taker."
71. A purely monopolistic industry:
A) has no entry barriers.
B) has a downward sloping demand curve.
C) produces a product or service for which there are many close substitutes.
D) earns only a normal profit in the long run.
72. A pure monopolist is:
A) any firm realizing all existing economies of scale.
B) any firm whose demand curve is downsloping.
C) any firm which can engage in price discrimination.
D) a one-firm industry.
73. Barriers to entering an industry:
A) are justified because they result in allocative efficiency.
B) are justified because they result in productive efficiency.
C) are the basis for monopoly.
D) apply only to purely monopolistic industries.
74. Patents:
A) give firms the exclusive right to produce or control a product for 100 years.
B) discourage research and innovation.
C) are a source of monopoly.
D) are also called trademarks.
75. A natural monopoly occurs when:
A) long-run average costs decline continuously through the range of demand.
B) a firm owns or controls some resource essential to production.
C) long-run average costs rise continuously as output is increased.
D) economies of scale are obtained at relatively low levels of output.
76. Monopolistic competition means:
A) a market situation where competition is based entirely on product differentiation and advertising.
B) a large number of firms producing a standardized or homogeneous product.
C) many firms producing differentiated products.
D) a few firms producing a standardized or homogeneous product.
77. Monopolistic competition is characterized by a:
A) few dominant firms and low entry barriers.
B) large number of firms and substantial entry barriers.
C) large number of firms and low entry barriers.
D) few dominant firms and substantial entry barriers.
78. The term oligopoly indicates:
A) a one-firm industry.
B) many producers of a differentiated product.
C) a few firms producing either a differentiated or a homogeneous product.
D) an industry whose four-firm concentration ratio is low.
79. In an oligopolistic market:
A) one firm is always dominant.
B) products may be standardized or differentiated.
C) the four largest firms account for 20 percent or less of total sales.
D) the industry is monopolistically competitive.
80. The automobile, household appliance, and automobile tire industries are all illustrations of:
A) homogeneous oligopoly. C) pure monopoly.
B) monopolistic competition. D) differentiated oligopoly.
CHAPTER 20
North And South At War, 1861–1865
(Note: The last two chapters focused on the key questions of the avoidability and/or inevitability of the monumental Civil War. If people before the war had had historical foresight and could have seen the true horror of the four-year fight to the death which was to follow, do you think that leaders might have worked harder to find a compromise solution? Might the North have let the South go in peace?)
1. Lincoln, Fort Sumter, and War Aims (pp. 434–438)
a. Read the Lincoln quote leading off the chapter carefully. Lincoln had a unique opportunity and responsibility to define the objectives of the conflict from the Union perspective. He clearly does not say that an objective of the war is to free the slaves. What is the “central idea” for Lincoln? *** Why did he think that letting the South go in peace would make the idea of popular government “an absurdity”?
b. List three of the more practical reasons for resisting southern secession mentioned by the authors in the first section. *** Then put a (+) or a () by each one, depending on whether or not you feel that the problem was serious enough to have used force to keep the South in the Union.
(+) or ()
(1)
(2)
(3)
c. Lincoln’s problem of uniting the North to resist southern secession was aided when southern soldiers fired first, on the federal Fort _________ in the harbor at _____________, South Carolina, in _______ of 1861. He knew that the balance of power could be tipped by the crucial border states of ___________, ___________, ____________, ____________, and ____________. How were Lincoln’s stated war aims designed to appeal to these slave-holding border states?
2. Balance of Forces (pp. 438–441) List below some of the relative strengths of both the North and South (assuming that a strength of one side is a weakness of the other) going into the war.
SOUTH NORTH
3. Foreign Involvement (pp. 441–444)
a. How do the authors define the differing attitudes toward southern independence between the European aristocracy and the masses of working people?
(1) Aristocracy:
(2) Masses:
b. Two incidents almost brought Britain, which needed cotton imports from the South, into the war. One was the _________ Affair in which the U.S. took two Confederate diplomats off an English ship. The other involved the willingness of the British to build ships for the South, which could be used for raids such as that of the _______________ (ship name), on northern shipping.
4. Lincoln and Liberties (pp. 444–447)
a. The authors imply here that Lincoln’s personality and temperament were better suited to national leadership in an emergency than Jefferson Davis because Davis was too particular about following his own Constitution. List two examples of Lincoln’s exercise of arbitrary power. *** What do you think of such actions in wartime?
(1)
(2)
(3) Opinion:
b. Although most fighting men on both sides were volunteers, the _________ (North or South) had a deeper pool of manpower. Looking at the draft laws, cite an example for both North and South to support the charge that it was “a rich man's war but a poor man's fight.”
(1) North:
(2) South:
5. Economic Aspects of War (pp. 447–450)
a. (Note: You should have a basic understanding of who pays the huge cost of fighting a war. Especially try to grasp the inflationary impact of a government just printing more paper currency to pay its bills.) The ____________ (North or South) was better able financially to pay for the war. As you read the section beginning on p. 447, put a (+) in the column of the side that relied most heavily on each of these three means of financing, and a () in the other column. NORTH SOUTH
(1) Taxes and tariffs:
(2) Bonds and borrowing:
(3) Printing money:
b. Compare and contrast how the North and the South emerged from the war economically.
(1) North:
(2) South:
c. During the war, many women went into industrial employment for the first time. In the “caring professions,” Dr. Elizabeth ____________ helped organize the U.S. ____________ Commission (predecessor to today’s Red Cross) and Clara __________ helped expand and transform the ____________ profession.
CHAPTER 20 TERM SHEET
North and South at War
Pages 434–438
Fort Sumter (April 1861)
Richmond, Va.
Border states
North’s war aims
Pages 438–441
Robert E. Lee
“Stonewall” Jackson
Ulysses S. Grant
Pages 441–444
Trent Affair (1861)
The Alabama
The “Laird rams”
Dominion of Canada (1867)
Maximilian/Mexico (1863)
Pages 444–447
Jefferson Davis
Blockade
Writ of Habeas Corpus
Conscription Law (1863)
“Three-hundred dollar men”
Draft riots
Pages 447–450
Income tax
Morrill Tariff Act (1861)
“Greenbacks”
War bonds (Jay Cooke & Co.)
National Banking System (1863)
Homestead Act of 1862
U.S. Sanitary Commission
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